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Sample questions for the Technician test
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This is an ASCII text version of the Amateur Technician Class question pool.
Direct any questions to [email protected].
73 de WB5ULK
SUBELEMENT 3AA - Commission's Rules (5 Questions)
1. What is the control point of an amateur station?
A. The operating position of an Amateur Radio station where the control
operator function is performed
B. The operating position of any Amateur Radio station operating as a
repeater user station
C. The physical location of any Amateur Radio transmitter, even if it
is operated by radio link from some other location
D. The variable frequency oscillator (VFO) of the transmitter
2. What is the term for the operating position of an amateur station where
the control operator function is performed?
A. The operating desk
B. The control point
C. The station location
D. The manual control location
3. What are the HF privileges authorized to a Technician control operator?
A. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when terrestrial
station location is in Alaska or Hawaii or outside Region 2), 14,100 to
14,150 kHz, 21,100 to 21,150 kHz, and 28,100 to 28,150 kHz only
B. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when terrestrial
station location is in Alaska or Hawaii or outside Region 2), 21,100 to
21,200 kHz, and 28,100 to 28,500 kHz only
C. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only
D. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when terrestrial
station location is in Alaska or Hawaii or outside Region 2), and 21,100 to
21,200 kHz only
4. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 52.525 MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced only
B. Extra, Advanced, General only
C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
5. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 146.52 MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced only
6. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 223.50 MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced only
7. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 446.0 MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced only
8. How often do Amateur Radio operator and station licenses need to be
renewed?
A. Every 10 years
B. Every 5 years
C. Every 2 years
D. They are lifetime licenses
9. The FCC currently issues amateur licenses carrying 10-year terms. What
is the "grace period" during which the FCC will renew an expired 10-year
license?
A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. There is no grace period
10. How do you modify an Amateur Radio operator and station license?
A. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in Gettysburg,
Pa
B. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the nearest FCC field
office
C. Write the FCC at their nearest field office
D. There is no need to modify an amateur license between renewals
11. On what frequencies within the 6-meter band may emission F3E be
transmitted?
A. 50.0-54.0 MHz only
B. 50.1-54.0 MHz only
C. 51.0-54.0 MHz only
D. 52.0-54.0 MHz only
12. On what frequencies within the 2-meter band may emission F3F be
transmitted?
A. 144.1-148.0 MHz only
B. 146.0-148.0 MHz only
C. 144.0-148.0 MHz only
D. 146.0-147.0 MHz only
13. What emission mode may always be used for station identification,
regardless of the transmitting frequency?
A. A1A
B. F1B
C. A2B
D. A3E
14. What is the nearest to the band edge the transmitting frequency should
be set?
A. 3 kHz for single sideband and 1 kHz for CW
B. 1 kHz for single sideband and 3 kHz for CW
C. 1.5 kHz for single sideband and 0.05 kHz for CW
D. As near as the operator desires, providing that no sideband,
harmonic, or spurious emission (in excess of that legally permitted) falls
outside the band
15. When selecting the transmitting frequency, what allowance should be made
for sideband emissions resulting from keying or modulation?
A. The sidebands must be adjacent to the authorized Amateur Radio
frequency band in use
B. The sidebands must be harmonically-related frequencies that fall
outside of the Amateur Radio frequency band in use
C. The sidebands must be confined within the authorized Amateur Radio
frequency band occupied by the carrier
D. The sidebands must fall outside of the Amateur Radio frequency band
in use so as to prevent interference to other Amateur Radio stations
16. FCC Rules specify the maximum transmitter power that you may use with
your Amateur Radio station. At what point in your station is the transmitter
power measured?
A. By measuring the final amplifier supply voltage inside the
transmitter or amplifier
B. By measuring the final amplifier supply current inside the
transmitter or amplifier
C. At the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier
D. On the antenna itself, after the feed line
17. What is the term used to define the average power during one radio-
frequency cycle at the crest of the modulation envelope?
A. Peak transmitter power
B. Peak output power
C. Average radio-frequency power
D. Peak envelope power
18. Notwithstanding the numerical limitations in the FCC Rules, how much
transmitting power shall be used by an amateur station?
A. There is no regulation other than the numerical limits
B. The minimum power level required to achieve S9 signal reports
C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communication
D. The maximum power available, as long as it is under the allowable
limit
19. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
146.52 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 500 watts ERP
C. 1000 watts DC input
D. 1500 watts PEP output
20. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station in
beacon operation?
A. 10 watts PEP output
B. 100 watts PEP output
C. 500 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
21. What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an emission F1B
transmission between 28 and 50 MHz?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
22. What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an emission F1B
transmission between 50 and 220 MHz?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
23. What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an emission F1B
transmission above 220 MHz?
A. 300 bauds
B. 1200 bauds
C. 19.6 kilobauds
D. 56 kilobauds
24. What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for emission F1B when
transmitted below 50 MHz?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 1000 Hz
D. 5000 Hz
25. What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for emission F1B when
transmitted above 50 MHz?
A. 100 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
B. 500 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
C. 1000 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
D. 5000 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
26. What is the maximum bandwidth permitted an amateur station transmission
between 50 and 220 MHz using a non-standard digital code?
A. 20 kHz
B. 50 kHz
C. 80 kHz
D. 100 kHz
27. What is the maximum bandwidth permitted an amateur station transmission
between 220 and 902 MHz using a non-standard digital code?
A. 20 kHz
B. 50 kHz
C. 80 kHz
D. 100 kHz
28. What is the maximum bandwidth permitted an amateur station transmission
above 902 MHz using a non-standard digital code?
A. 20 kHz
B. 100 kHz
C. 200 kHz, as defined by Section 97.66 (g)
D. Any bandwidth, providing that the emission is in accordance with
section 97.63 (b) and 97.73 ©
29. How must a newly-upgraded Technician control operator with a Certificate
of Successful Completion of Examination identify the station while it is
transmitting on 146.34 MHz pending receipt of a new operator license?
A. The new Technician may not operate on 146.34 until his or her new
license arrives
B. The licensee gives his or her call sign, followed by the word
"temporary" and the identifier code shown on the certificate of successful
completion
C. No special form of identification is needed
D. The licensee gives his or her call sign and states the location of
the VE examination where he or she obtained the certificate of successful
completion
30. Which language(s) must be used when making the station identification
by telephony?
A. The language being used for the contact may be used if it is not
English, providing the US has a third-party traffic agreement with that
country
B. English must be used for identification
C. Any language may be used, if the country which uses that language is
a member of the International Telecommunication Union
D. The language being used for the contact must be used for
identification purposes
31. What aid does the FCC recommend to assist in station identification when
using telephony?
A. A speech compressor
B. Q signals
C. An internationally recognized phonetic alphabet
D. Distinctive phonetics, made up by the operator and easy to remember
32. What is the term used to describe a one-way radio communication
conducted in order to facilitate measurement of radio equipment charac-
teristics, adjustment of radio equipment or observation of propagation
phenomena?
A. Beacon operation
B. Repeater operation
C. Auxiliary operation
D. Radio control operation
33. What class of Amateur Radio operator license must you hold to operate
a beacon station?
A. Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class
B. General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class
C. Amateur Extra class only
D. Any license class
34. What is the maximum mean output power an amateur station is permitted
in order to operate under the special rules for radio control of remote model
craft and vehicles?
A. One watt
B. One milliwatt
C. Two watts
D. Three watts
35. What information must be indicated on the writing affixed to the
transmitter in order to operate under the special rules for radio control of
remote model craft and vehicles?
A. Station call sign
B. Station call sign and operating times
C. Station call sign and licensee's name and address
D. Station call sign, class of license, and operating times
36. What are the station identification requirements for an amateur station
operated under the special rules for radio control of remote model craft and
vehicles?
A. Once every ten minutes, and at the beginning and end of each
transmission
B. Once every ten minutes
C. At the beginning and end of each transmission
D. Station identification is not required
37. Where must the writing indicating the station call sign and the
licensee's name and address be affixed in order to operate under the special
rules for radio control of remote model craft and vehicles?
A. It must be in the operator's possession
B. It must be affixed to the transmitter
C. It must be affixed to the craft or vehicle
D. It must be filed with the nearest FCC Field Office
38. What is an amateur emergency communication?
A. An Amateur Radio communication directly relating to the immediate
safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property
B. A communication with the manufacturer of the amateur's equipment in
case of equipment failure
C. The only type of communication allowed in the Amateur Radio Service
D. A communication that must be left to the Public Safety Radio
Services; for example, police and fire officials
39. What is the term for an Amateur Radio communication directly related to
the immediate safety of life of an individual?
A. Immediate safety communication
B. Emergency communication
C. Third-party communication
D. Individual communication
40. What is the term for an Amateur Radio communication directly related to
the immediate protection of property?
A. Emergency communication
B. Immediate communication
C. Property communication
D. Priority traffic
41. Under what circumstances does the FCC declare that a general state of
communications emergency exists?
A. When a declaration of war is received from Congress
B. When the maximum usable frequency goes above 28 MHz
C. When communications facilities in Washington, DC, are disrupted
D. In the event of an emergency disrupting normally available
communication facilities in any widespread area(s)
42. How does an amateur operator request the FCC to declare that a general
state of communications emergency exists?
A. Communication with the FCC Engineer-In-Charge of the affected area
B. Communication with the US senator or congressman for the area
affected
C. Communication with the local Emergency Coordinator
D. Communication with the Chief of the FCC Private Radio Bureau
43. What type of instructions are included in an FCC declaration of a
general state of communications emergency?
A. Designation of the areas affected and of organizations authorized to
use radio communications in the affected area
B. Designation of amateur frequency bands for use only by amateurs
participating in emergency communications in the affected area, and complete
suspension of Novice operating privileges for the duration of the emergency
C. Designation of the areas affected and specification of the amateur
frequency bands or segments of such bands for use only by amateurs
participating in emergency communication within or with such affected area(s)
D. Suspension of amateur rules regarding station identification and
business communication
44. During an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency, how
must the operation by, and with, amateur stations in the area concerned be
conducted?
A. All transmissions within all designated amateur communications bands
other than communications relating directly to relief work, emergency
service, or the establishment and maintenance of efficient Amateur Radio net-
works for the handling of such communications shall be suspended
B. Operations shall be governed by part 97.93 of the FCC rules
pertaining to emergency communications
C. No amateur operation is permitted in the area during the duration of
the declared emergency
D. Operation by and with amateur stations in the area concerned shall
be conducted in the manner the amateur concerned believes most effective to
the speedy resolution of the emergency situation
45. What is meant by the term broadcasting?
A. The dissemination of radio communications intended to be received by
the public directly or by intermediary relay stations
B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals emanating
from any class of station other than amateur
C. The transmission of any one-way radio communication, regardless of
purpose or content
D. Any one-way or two-way radio communication involving more than two
stations
46. What classes of station may be automatically retransmitted by an amateur
station?
A. FCC licensed commercial stations
B. Federally or state-authorized Civil Defense stations
C. Amateur Radio stations
D. National Weather Service bulletin stations
47. Under what circumstances, if any, may a broadcast station retransmit the
signals from an amateur station?
A. Under no circumstances
B. When the amateur station is not used for any activity directly
related to program production or newsgathering for broadcast purposes
C. If the station rebroadcasting the signal feels that such action would
benefit the public
D. When no other forms of communication exist
48. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station retransmit a
NOAA weather station broadcast?
A. If the NOAA broadcast is taped and retransmitted later
B. If a general state of communications emergency is declared by the FCC
C. If permission is granted by NOAA for amateur retransmission of the
broadcast
D. Under no circumstances
49. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station be used for an
activity related to program production or news-gathering for broadcast
purposes?
A. The programs or news produced with the assistance of an amateur
station must be taped for broadcast at a later time
B. An amateur station may be used for newsgathering and program
production only by National Public Radio
C. Under no circumstances
D. Programs or news produced with the assistance of an amateur station
must mention the call sign of that station
50. What kinds of one-way communications by amateur stations are not
considered broadcasting?
A. All types of one-way communications by amateurs are considered by the
FCC as broadcasting
B. Beacon operation, radio-control operation, emergency communications,
information bulletins consisting solely of subject matter relating to Amateur
Radio, roundtable discussions and code-practice transmissions
C. Only code-practice transmissions conducted simultaneously on all
available amateur bands below 30 MHz and conducted for more than 40 hours per
week are not considered broadcasting
D. Only actual emergency communications during a declared communications
emergency are exempt
51. What is a one-way radio communication?
A. A communication in which propagation at the frequency in use supports
signal travel in only one direction
B. A communication in which different emissions are used in each
direction
C. A communication in which an amateur station transmits to and receives
from a station in a radio service other than amateur
D. A transmission to which no on-the-air response is desired or expected
52. What kinds of one-way information bulletins may be transmitted by
amateur stations?
A. NOAA weather bulletins
B. Commuter traffic reports from local radio stations
C. Regularly scheduled announcements concerning Amateur Radio equipment
for sale or trade
D. Bulletins consisting solely of information relating to Amateur Radio
53. What types of one-way Amateur Radio communications may be transmitted
by an amateur station?
A. Beacon operation, radio control, code practice, retransmission of
other services
B. Beacon operation, radio control, transmitting an unmodulated carrier,
NOAA weather bulletins
C. Beacon operation, radio control, information bulletins consisting
solely of information relating to Amateur Radio, code practice and emergency
communications
D. Beacon operation, emergency-drill-practice transmissions, automatic
retransmission of NOAA weather transmissions, code practice
54. What types of material compensation, if any, may be involved in third-
party traffic transmitted by an amateur station?
A. Payment of an amount agreed upon by the amateur operator and the
parties involved
B. Assistance in maintenance of auxiliary station equipment
C. Donation of amateur equipment to the control operator
D. No compensation may be accepted
55. What types of business communications, if any, may be transmitted by an
amateur station on behalf of a third party?
A. Section 97.57 specifically prohibits business communications in the
Amateur Service
B. Business communications involving the sale of Amateur Radio equipment
C. Business communications involving an emergency, as defined in Part
97
D. Business communications aiding a broadcast station
56. Does the FCC allow third-party messages when communicating with Amateur
Radio operators in a foreign country?
A. Third-party messages with a foreign country are only allowed on
behalf of other amateurs.
B. Yes, provided the third-party message involves the immediate family
of one of the communicating amateurs
C. Under no circumstances may US amateurs exchange third-party messages
with an amateur in a foreign country
D. Yes, when communicating with a person in a country with which the US
shares a third-party agreement
57. Under what circumstances, if any, may a third party participate in radio
communications from an amateur station?
A. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and
supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules. In
addition, contacts may only be made with amateurs in the US and countries
with which the US has a third-party traffic agreement
B. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and
supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules only
if contacts are made with amateurs in countries with which the US has no
third-party traffic agreement
C. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and
supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules. In
addition, the control operator must key the transmitter and make the station
identification.
D. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor and
supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules. In
addition, if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz, the control
operator must transmit the call signs of both stations involved in the
contact at 10-minute intervals
58. Where must the control operator be situated when a third party is
participating in radio communications from an amateur station?
A. If a radio remote control is used, the control operator may be
physically separated from the control point, when provisions are incorporated
to shut off the transmitter by remote control
B. If the control operator supervises the third party until he or she
is satisfied of the competence of the third party, the control operator may
leave the control point
C. The control operator must stay at the control point for the entire
time the third party is participating
D. If the third party holds a valid radiotelegraph license issued by the
FCC, no supervision is necessary
59. What must the control operator do while a third party is participating
in radio communications?
A. If the third party holds a valid commercial radiotelegraph license,
no supervision is necessary
B. The control operator must tune up and down 5 kHz from the
transmitting frequency on another receiver, to ensure that no interference
is taking place
C. If a radio control link is available, the control operator may leave
the room
D. The control operator must continuously monitor and supervise the
radio communication to ensure compliance with the rules
60. Under what circumstances, if any, may a third party assume the duties
of the control operator of an amateur station?
A. If the third party holds a valid commercial radiotelegraph license,
he or she may act as control operator
B. Under no circumstances may a third party assume the duties of control
operator
C. During Field Day, the third party may act as control operator
D. An Amateur Extra class licensee may designate a third party as
control operator, if the station is operated above 450 MHz
61. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio
communications containing obscene words?
A. Obscene words are permitted when they do not cause interference to
any other radio communication or signal
B. Obscene words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions
C. Obscene words are permitted when they are not retransmitted through
repeater or auxiliary stations
D. Obscene words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among
amateurs that they should not be used on the air
62. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio
communications containing indecent words?
A. Indecent words are permitted when they do not cause interference to
any other radio communication or signal
B. Indecent words are permitted when they are not retransmitted through
repeater or auxiliary stations
C. Indecent words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among
amateurs that they should not be used on the air
D. Indecent words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions
63. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit radio
communications containing profane words?
A. Profane words are permitted when they are not retransmitted through
repeater or auxiliary stations
B. Profane words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule among
amateurs that they should not be used on the air
C. Profane words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions
D. Profane words are permitted when they do not cause interference to
any other radio communication or signal
64. What classes of Amateur Radio operator license are eligible for earth
operation in the Amateur-Satellite Service?
A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class
B. Technician, General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class
C. General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class
D. Amateur Extra class only
SUBELEMENT 3AB - Operating Procedures (3 Questions)
65. What is the meaning of: "Your report is five seven..."?
A. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong
B. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak
C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty
D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone
66. What is the meaning of: "Your report is three three..."?
A. The contact is serial number thirty-three
B. The station is located at latitude 33 degrees
C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in
strength
D. Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength
67. What is the meaning of: "Your report is five nine plus 20 dB..."?
A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100
B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher
C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity
D. A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels greater than
strength 9
68. How should a QSO be initiated through a station in repeater operation?
A. Say "breaker, breaker 79"
B. Call the desired station and then identify your own station
C. Call "CQ" three times and identify three times
D. Wait for a "CQ" to be called and then answer it
69. Why should users of a station in repeater operation pause briefly
between transmissions?
A. To check the SWR of the repeater
B. To reach for pencil and paper for third party traffic
C. To listen for any hams wanting to break in
D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch
70. Why should users of a station in repeater operation keep their
transmissions short and thoughtful?
A. A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using
the repeater
B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake
C. To give any non-hams that are listening a chance to respond
D. To keep long-distance charges down
71. What is the proper procedure to break into an on-going QSO through a
station in repeater operation?
A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling
B. Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join the
conversation
C. Turn on your 100-watt amplifier and override whoever is talking
D. Send your call sign during a break between transmissions
72. What is the purpose of repeater operation?
A. To cut your power bill by using someone's higher power system
B. To enable mobile and low-power stations to extend their usable range
C. To reduce your telephone bill
D. To call the ham radio distributor 50 miles away
73. What is meant by "making the repeater time out"?
A. The repeater's battery supply has run out
B. The repeater's transmission time limit has expired during a single
transmission
C. The warranty on the repeater duplexer has expired
D. The repeater is in need of repairs
74. During commuting rush hours, which types of operation should relinquish
the use of the repeater?
A. Mobile operators
B. Low-power stations
C. Highway traffic information nets
D. Third-party traffic nets
75. Why should simplex be used where possible instead of using a station in
repeater operation?
A. Farther distances can be reached
B. To avoid long distance toll charges
C. To avoid tying up the repeater unnecessarily
D. To permit the testing of the effectiveness of your antenna
76. When a frequency conflict arises between a simplex operation and a
repeater operation, why does good amateur practice call for the simplex
operation to move to another frequency?
A. The repeater's output power can be turned up to ruin the front end
of the station in simplex operation
B. There are more repeaters than simplex operators
C. Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical
D. Changing a repeater frequency requires the authorization of the
Federal Communications Commission
77. What is the usual input/output frequency separation for stations in
repeater operation in the 2-meter band?
A. 1 MHz
B. 1.6 MHz
C. 170 Hz
D. 0.6 MHz
78. What is the usual input/output frequency separation for stations in
repeater operation in the 70-centimeter band?
A. 1.6 MHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 600 kHz
D. 5 kHz
79. What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 6-meter
station in repeater operation?
A. 1 MHz
B. 600 kHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 20 kHz
80. What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 1.25-meter
station in repeater operation?
A. 1000 kHz
B. 600 kHz
C. 1600 kHz
D. 1.6 GHz
81. What is a repeater frequency coordinator?
A. Someone who coordinates the assembly of a repeater station
B. Someone who provides advice on what kind of system to buy
C. The club's repeater trustee
D. A person or group that recommends frequency pairs for repeater usage
82. Why should local Amateur Radio communications be conducted on VHF and
UHF frequencies?
A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance sky-
wave communication
B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF
C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally
D. Because absorption is greater at VHF and UHF frequencies
83. How can on-the-air transmissions be minimized during a lengthy
transmitter testing or loading up procedure?
A. Choose an unoccupied frequency
B. Use a dummy antenna
C. Use a non-resonant antenna
D. Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading up procedure
84. What is the proper Q signal to use to determine whether a frequency is
in use before making a transmission?
A. QRV?
B. QRU?
C. QRL?
D. QRZ?
85. What is the proper distress calling procedure when using telephony?
A. Transmit MAYDAY
B. Transmit QRRR
C. Transmit QRZ
D. Transmit SOS
86. What is the proper distress calling procedure when using telegraphy?
A. Transmit MAYDAY
B. Transmit QRRR
C. Transmit QRZ
D. Transmit SOS
87. What is one requirement you must meet before you can participate in
RACES drills?
A. You must be registered with ARRL
B. You must be registered with a local racing organization
C. You must be registered with the responsible civil defense
organization
D. You need not register with anyone to operate RACES
88. What is the maximum amount of time allowed per week for RACES drills?
A. Eight hours
B. One hour
C. As many hours as you want
D. Six hours, but not more than one hour per day
89. How must you identify messages sent during a RACES drill?
A. As emergency messages
B. As amateur traffic
C. As official government messages
D. As drill or test messages
90. What is the term used to describe first-response communications in an
emergency situation?
A. Tactical communications
B. Emergency communications
C. Formal message traffic
D. National Traffic System messages
91. What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "command post"
or "weather center" during an emergency?
A. They keep the general public informed about what is going on
B. They promote efficiency and coordination in public-service
communications activities
C. They are required by the FCC
D. They promote goodwill among amateurs
92. What is the term used to describe messages sent into or out of a
disaster area that pertain to a person's well being?
A. Emergency traffic
B. Tactical traffic
C. Formal message traffic
D. Health and welfare traffic
93. Why is it important to provide a means of operating your Amateur Radio
station separate from the commercial AC power lines?
A. So that you can take your station mobile
B. So that you can provide communications in an emergency
C. So that you can operate field day
D. So that you will comply with Subpart 97.169 of the FCC Rules
94. Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF
Amateur Radio station that could be set up in case of a communications
emergency?
A. A three-element quad
B. A three-element Yagi
C. A dipole
D. A parabolic dish
SUBELEMENT 3AC - Radio-Wave Propagation (3 Questions)
95. What is the ionosphere?
A. That part of the upper atmosphere where enough ions and free
electrons exist to affect radio-wave propagation
B. The boundary between two air masses of different temperature and
humidity, along which radio waves can travel
C. The ball that goes on the top of a mobile whip antenna
D. That part of the atmosphere where weather takes place
96. What is the region of the outer atmosphere that makes long-distance
radio communications possible as a result of bending of radio waves?
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Magnetosphere
D. Ionosphere
97. What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the
outer atmosphere?
A. Thermal
B. Ionized particle
C. Ultraviolet
D. Microwave
98. Which ionospheric layer limits daytime radio communications in the 80-
meter band to short distances?
A. D layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. F2 layer
99. What is the lowest ionospheric layer?
A. The A layer
B. The D layer
C. The E layer
D. The F layer
100. What is the lowest region of the ionosphere that is useful for long-
distance radio wave propagation?
A. The D layer
B. The E layer
C. The F1 layer
D. The F2 layer
101. Which layer of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long-distance
sky-wave radio communications?
A. D layer
B. E layer
C. F1 layer
D. F2 layer
102. What are the two distinct sub-layers of the F layer of the ionosphere
during the daytime?
A. Troposphere and stratosphere
B. F1 and F2
C. Electrostatic and electromagnetic
D. D and E
103. Which two daytime ionospheric layers combine into one layer at night?
A. E and F1
B. D and E
C. F1 and F2
D. E1 and E2
104. Which layer of the ionosphere is most responsible for absorption of
radio signals during daylight hours?
A. The E layer
B. The F1 layer
C. The F2 layer
D. The D layer
105. When is ionospheric absorption most pronounced?
A. When tropospheric ducting occurs
B. When radio waves enter the D layer at low angles
C. When radio waves travel to the F layer
D. When a temperature inversion occurs
106. During daylight hours, what effect does the D layer of the ionosphere
have on 80-meter radio waves?
A. The D layer absorbs the signals
B. The D layer bends the radio waves out into space
C. The D layer refracts the radio waves back to earth
D. The D layer has little or no effect on 80 meter radio wave
propagation
107. What causes ionospheric absorption of radio waves?
A. A lack of D layer ionization
B. D layer ionization
C. The presence of ionized clouds in the E layer
D. Splitting of the F layer
108. What is usually the condition of the ionosphere just before sunrise?
A. Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum
B. Ionization is at a maximum
C. The E layer is above the F layer
D. Ionization is at a minimum
109. At what time of day does maximum ionization of the ionosphere occur?
A. Dusk
B. Midnight
C. Midday
D. Dawn
110. Minimum ionization of the ionosphere occurs daily at what time?
A. Shortly before dawn
B. Just after noon
C. Just after dusk
D. Shortly before midnight
111. When is E layer ionization at a maximum?
A. Dawn
B. Midday
C. Dusk
D. Midnight
112. What is the name for the highest radio frequency that will be refracted
back to earth?
A. Lowest usable frequency
B. Optimum working frequency
C. Ultra high frequency
D. Critical frequency
113. What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?
A. Variations in the temperature of the air at ionospheric levels
B. Upper-atmospheric wind patterns
C. The amount of ultraviolet and other types of radiation received from
the sun
D. Presence of ducting
114. What does the term maximum usable frequency refer to?
A. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach its
destination in a single hop
B. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach its
destination in a single hop
C. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to be absorbed in
the lowest ionospheric layer
D. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to be absorbed in
the lowest ionospheric layer
115. When two stations are within each other's skip zone on the frequency
being used, what mode of propagation would it be desirable to use?
A. Ground wave propagation
B. Sky wave propagation
C. Scatter-mode propagation
D. Ionospheric ducting propagation
116. You are in contact with a distant station and are operating at a
frequency close to the maximum usable frequency. If the received signals are
weak and somewhat distorted, what type of propagation are you probably
experiencing?
A. Tropospheric ducting
B. Line-of-sight propagation
C. Backscatter propagation
D. Waveguide propagation
117. What is the transmission path of a wave that travels directly from the
transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna called?
A. Line of sight
B. The sky wave
C. The linear wave
D. The plane wave
118. How are VHF signals within the range of the visible horizon propagated?
A. By sky wave
B. By direct wave
C. By plane wave
D. By geometric wave
119. Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?
A. F2
B. Ionosphere
C. Troposphere
D. Stratosphere
120. What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-meter radio waves?
A. It increases the distance over which they can be transmitted
B. It decreases the distance over which they can be transmitted
C. It tends to garble 2-meter phone transmissions
D. It reverses the sideband of 2-meter phone transmissions
121. What atmospheric phenomenon causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?
A. A very low pressure area
B. An aurora to the north
C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station
D. A temperature inversion
122. Tropospheric ducting occurs as a result of what phenomenon?
A. A temperature inversion
B. Sun spots
C. An aurora to the north
D. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station
123. What atmospheric phenomenon causes VHF radio waves to be propagated
several hundred miles through stable air masses over oceans?
A. Presence of a maritime polar air mass
B. A widespread temperature inversion
C. An overcast of cirriform clouds
D. Atmospheric pressure of roughly 29 inches of mercury or higher
124. In what frequency range does tropospheric ducting occur most often?
A. LF
B. MF
C. HF
D. VHF
SUBELEMENT 3AD - Amateur Radio Practice (4 Questions)
125. Where should the green wire in an AC line cord be attached in a power
supply?
A. To the fuse
B. To the "hot" side of the power switch
C. To the chassis
D. To the meter
126. Where should the black (or red) wire in a three-wire line cord be
attached in a power supply?
A. To the filter capacitor
B. To the DC ground
C. To the chassis
D. To the fuse
127. Where should the white wire in a three-wire line cord be attached in a
power supply?
A. To the side of the transformer's primary winding that has a fuse
B. To the side of the transformer's primary winding without a fuse
C. To the black wire
D. To the rectifier junction
128. Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a light socket made of
brass while the other one is silver colored?
A. To prevent galvanic action
B. To indicate correct wiring polarity
C. To better conduct current
D. To reduce skin effect
129. How much electrical current flowing through the human body is usually
fatal?
A. As little as 100 milliamperes may be fatal
B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be fatal
C. More than 20 amperes is needed to kill a human being
D. No amount of current will harm you. Voltages of over 2000 volts are
always fatal, however
130. What is the minimum voltage considered to be dangerous to humans?
A. 30 volts
B. 100 volts
C. 1000 volts
D. 2000 volts
131. How much electrical current flowing through the human body is usually
painful?
A. As little as 50 milliamperes may be painful
B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be painful
C. More than 20 amperes is needed to be painful to a human being
D. No amount of current will be painful. Voltages of over 2000 volts are
always painful, however
132. Where should the main power-line switch for a high voltage power supply
be situated?
A. Inside the cabinet, to interrupt power when the cabinet is opened
B. On the rear panel of the high-voltage supply
C. Where it can be seen and reached easily
D. This supply should not be switch-operated
133. How is a voltmeter typically connected to a circuit under test?
A. In series with the circuit
B. In parallel with the circuit
C. In quadrature with the circuit
D. In phase with the circuit
134. How can the range of a voltmeter be extended?
A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
C. By adding resistance in series with the meter
D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter
135. How is an ammeter typically connected to a circuit under test?
A. In series with the circuit
B. In parallel with the circuit
C. In quadrature with the circuit
D. In phase with the circuit
136. How can the range of an ammeter be extended?
A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
C. By adding resistance in series with the meter
D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter
137. What is a multimeter?
A. An instrument capable of reading SWR and power
B. An instrument capable of reading resistance, capacitance and
inductance
C. An instrument capable of reading resistance and reactance
D. An instrument capable of reading voltage, current and resistance
138. Where in the antenna transmission line should a peak-reading wattmeter
be attached to determine the transmitter output power?
A. At the transmitter output
B. At the antenna feed point
C. One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point
D. One-quarter wavelength from the transmitter output
139. For the most accurate readings of transmitter output power, where should
the RF wattmeter be inserted?
A. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured one-quarter
wavelength from the antenna feed point
B. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured one-half
wavelength from the antenna feed point
C. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power measured at the
transmitter antenna jack
D. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power measured at the
Transmatch output
140. At what line impedance are RF wattmeters usually designed to operate?
A. 25 ohms
B. 50 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms
141. What is a directional wattmeter?
A. An instrument that measures forward or reflected power
B. An instrument that measures the directional pattern of an antenna
C. An instrument that measures the energy consumed by the transmitter
D. An instrument that measures thermal heating in a load resistor
142. If a directional RF wattmeter indicates 90 watts forward power and 10
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power?
A. 10 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 90 watts
D. 100 watts
143. If a directional RF wattmeter indicates 96 watts forward power and 4
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power?
A. 80 watts
B. 88 watts
C. 92 watts
D. 100 watts
144. What is a marker generator?
A. A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of reference
signals at known frequency intervals
B. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of
frequencies
C. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's
location relative to the inner and outer markers at airports
D. A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude can
be varied over a wide range
145. What type of circuit is used to inject a frequency calibration signal
into a communications receiver?
A. A product detector
B. A receiver incremental tuning circuit
C. A balanced modulator
D. A crystal calibrator
146. How is a marker generator used?
A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver
B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver
C. To test the amplitude linearity of an SSB transmitter
D. To test the frequency deviation of an FM transmitter
147. What piece of test equipment produces a stable, low-level signal that
can be set to a specific frequency?
A. A wavemeter
B. A reflectometer
C. A signal generator
D. A balanced modulator
148. What is an RF signal generator commonly used for?
A. Measuring RF signal amplitude
B. Aligning receiver tuned circuits
C. Adjusting the transmitter impedance-matching network
D. Measuring transmission line impedance
149. What is a reflectometer?
A. An instrument used to measure signals reflected from the ionosphere
B. An instrument used to measure radiation resistance
C. An instrument used to measure transmission-line impedance
D. An instrument used to measure standing wave ratio
150. What is the device that can indicate an impedance mismatch in an antenna
system?
A. A field-strength meter
B. A set of lecher wires
C. A wavemeter
D. A reflectometer
151. For best accuracy when adjusting the impedance match between an antenna
and feed line, where should the match-indicating device be inserted?
A. At the antenna feed point
B. At the transmitter
C. At the midpoint of the feed line
D. Anywhere along the feed line
152. Where should a reflectometer be inserted into a long antenna
transmission line in order to obtain the most valid standing wave ratio
indication?
A. At any quarter-wavelength interval along the transmission line
B. At the receiver end
C. At the antenna end
D. At any even half-wavelength interval along the transmission line
153. When adjusting a transmitter filter circuit, what device is connected
to the transmitter output?
A. A multimeter
B. A set of Litz wires
C. A receiver
D. A dummy antenna
154. What is a dummy antenna?
A. An isotropic radiator
B. A nonradiating load for a transmitter
C. An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements
D. The image of an antenna, located below ground
155. What materials may a dummy antenna be made?
A. A wire-wound resistor
B. A diode and resistor combination
C. A noninductive resistor
D. A coil and capacitor combination
156. What station accessory is used in place of an antenna during transmitter
tests so that no signal is radiated?
A. A Transmatch
B. A dummy antenna
C. A low-pass filter
D. A decoupling resistor
157. What is the purpose of a dummy load?
A. To allow off-the-air transmitter testing
B. To reduce output power for QRP operation
C. To give comparative signal reports
D. To allow Transmatch tuning without causing interference
158. How many watts should a dummy load for use with a 100-watt emission J3E
transmitter with 50 ohm output be able to dissipate?
A. A minimum of 100 watts continuous
B. A minimum of 141 watts continuous
C. A minimum of 175 watts continuous
D. A minimum of 200 watts continuous
159. What is an S-meter?
A. A meter used to measure sideband suppression
B. A meter used to measure spurious emissions from a transmitter
C. A meter used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver
D. A meter used to measure solar flux
160. A meter that is used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver
is known as what?
A. An S-meter
B. An RST-meter
C. A signal deviation meter
D. An SSB meter
161. Large amounts of RF energy may cause damage to body tissue, depending
on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and
other factors. How does RF energy effect body tissue?
A. It causes radiation poisoning
B. It heats the tissue
C. It cools the tissue
D. It produces genetic changes in the tissue
162. Which body organ is most susceptible to damage from the heating effects
of radio frequency radiation?
A. Eyes
B. Hands
C. Heart
D. Liver
163. Scientists have devoted a great deal of effort to determine safe RF
exposure limits. What organization has established an RF protection guide?
A. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
B. The American Radio Relay League
C. The Environmental Protection Agency
D. The American National Standards Institute
164. What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide?
A. It protects you from unscrupulous radio dealers
B. It sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances
C. It sets transmitter power limits
D. It sets antenna height requirements
165. The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF
exposure limits under certain circumstances. In what frequency range is the
maximum exposure level the most stringent (lowest)?
A. 3 to 30 MHz
B. 30 to 300 MHz
C. 300 to 3000 MHz
D. Above 1.5 GHz
166. The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF
exposure limits under certain circumstances. Why is the maximum exposure
level the most stringent (lowest) in the ranges between 30 MHz and 300 MHz?
A. There are fewer transmitters operating in this frequency range
B. There are fewer transmitters operating in this frequency range
C. Most transmissions in this frequency range are for an extended time
D. Human body lengths are close to whole-body resonance in that range
167. The American National Standards Institute RF protection guide sets RF
exposure limits under certain circumstances. What is the maximum safe power
output to the antenna terminal of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio, as set by
this RF protection guide?
A. 125 milliwatts
B. 7 watts
C. 10 watts
D. 25 watts
168. After you make internal tuning adjustments to your VHF power amplifier,
what should you do before you turn the amplifier on?
A. Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure maximum cooling
B. Connect a noise bridge to eliminate any interference
C. Be certain all amplifier shielding is fastened in place
D. Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not cause any
interference
SUBELEMENT 3AE - Electrical Principles (2 Questions)
169. What is meant by the term resistance?
A. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric circuit
containing inductance
B. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric circuit
containing capacitance
C. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric circuit
containing reactance
D. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric circuit that
does not contain reactance
170. What is an ohm?
A. The basic unit of resistance
B. The basic unit of capacitance
C. The basic unit of inductance
D. The basic unit of admittance
171. What is the unit measurement of resistance?
A. Volt
B. Ampere
C. Joule
D. Ohm
172. Two equal-value resistors are connected in series. How does the total
resistance of this combination compare with the value of either resistor by
itself?
A. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor
B. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor
C. The total resistance is the same as the value of either resistor
D. The total resistance is the square of the value of either resistor
173. How does the total resistance of a string of series-connected resistors
compare to the values of the individual resistors?
A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of all the individual
resistor values
B. The total resistance is the square root of the sum of the individual
resistor values
C. The total resistance is the sum of the squares of the individual
resistor values
D. The total resistance is the sum of all the individual resistance
values
174. Two equal-value resistors are connected in parallel. How does the total
resistance of this combination compare with the value of either resistor by
itself?
A. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor
B. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor
C. The total resistance is the square of the value of either resistor
D. The total resistance is the same as the value of either resistor
175. How does the total resistance of a string of parallel-connected
resistors compare to the values of the individual resistors?
A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of the resistor values
B. The total resistance is more than the highest-value resistor in the
combination
C. The total resistance is less than the smallest-value resistor in the
combination
D. The total resistance is same as the highest-value resistor in the
combination
176. What is Ohm's Law?
A. A mathematical relationship between resistance, voltage and power in
a circuit
B. A mathematical relationship between current, resistance and power in
a circuit
C. A mathematical relationship between current, voltage and power in a
circuit
D. A mathematical relationship between resistance, current and applied
voltage in a circuit
177. How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and
resistance are known?
A. I = E / R
B. P = I x E
C. I = R x E
D. I = E x R
178. What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt battery supplies
0.25 amperes to it?
A. 0.02 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 48 ohms
D. 480 ohms
179. The product of the current and what force gives the electrical power in
a circuit?
A. Magnetomotive force
B. Centripetal force
C. Electrochemical force
D. Electromotive force
180. What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt battery supplies
0.15 amperes to it?
A. 8 ohms
B. 80 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 800 ohms
181. When 120 volts is measured across a 4700-ohm resistor, approximately how
much current is flowing through it?
A. 39 amperes
B. 3.9 amperes
C. 0.26 ampere
D. 0.026 ampere
182. When 120 volts is measured across a 47000-ohm resistor, approximately
how much current is flowing through it?
A. 392 A
B. 39.2 A
C. 26 mA
D. 2.6 mA
183. When 12 volts is measured across a 4700-ohm resistor, approximately how
much current is flowing through it?
A. 2.6 mA
B. 26 mA
C. 39.2 A
D. 392 A
184. When 12 volts is measured across a 47000-ohm resistor, approximately how
much current is flowing through it?
A. 255 uA
B. 255 mA
C. 3917 mA
D. 3917 A
185. What is the term used to describe the ability of a component to store
energy in a magnetic field?
A. Admittance
B. Capacitance
C. Inductance
D. Resistance
186. What is the basic unit of inductance?
A. Coulomb
B. Farad
C. Henry
D. Ohm
187. What is a henry?
A. The basic unit of admittance
B. The basic unit of capacitance
C. The basic unit of inductance
D. The basic unit of resistance
188. What is a microhenry?
A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-12/ henrys
B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-6/ henrys
C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-3/ henrys
D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\6/ henrys
189. What is a millihenry?
A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-12/ henrys
B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-6/ henrys
C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-3/ henrys
D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\6/ henrys
190. Two equal-value inductors are connected in series. How does the total
inductance of this combination compare with the value of either inductor by
itself?
A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor
B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor
C. The total inductance is equal to the value of either inductor
D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances
191. How does the total inductance of a string of series-connected inductors
compare to the values of the individual inductors?
A. The total inductance is equal to the average of all the individual
inductances
B. The total inductance is equal to less than the value of the smallest
inductance
C. The total inductance is equal to the sum of all the individual
inductances
D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances
192. Two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel. How does the total
inductance of this combination compare with the value of either inductor by
itself?
A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor
B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor
C. The total inductance is equal to the square of either inductance
D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances
193. How does the total inductance of a string of parallel-connected
inductors compare to the values of the individual inductors?
A. The total inductance is equal to the sum of the inductances in the
combination
B. The total inductance is less than the smallest inductance value in
the combination
C. The total inductance is equal to the average of the inductances in
the combination
D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact inductances
194. What is the term used to describe the ability of a component to store
energy in an electric field?
A. Capacitance
B. Inductance
C. Resistance
D. Tolerance
195. What is the basic unit of capacitance?
A. Farad
B. Ohm
C. Volt
D. Ampere
196. What is a microfarad?
A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-12/ farads
B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-6/ farads
C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-2/ farads
D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\6/ farads
197. What is a picofarad?
A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-12/ farads
B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-6/ farads
C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-2/ farads
D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\6/ farads
198. What is a farad?
A. The basic unit of resistance
B. The basic unit of capacitance
C. The basic unit of inductance
D. The basic unit of admittance
199. Two equal-value capacitors are connected in series. How does the total
capacitance of this combination compare with the value of either capacitor
by itself?
A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either capacitor
B. The total capacitance is equal to the value of either capacitor
C. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor
D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances
200. How does the total capacitance of a string of series-connected
capacitors compare to the values of the individual capacitors?
A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of the capacitances in the
combination
B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value of capacitance
in the combination
C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the capacitances in
the combination
D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances
201. Two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel. How does the
total capacitance of this combination compare with the value of either
capacitor by itself?
A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either capacitor
B. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor
C. The total capacitance is equal to the value of either capacitor
D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances
202. How does the total capacitance of a string of parallel-connected
capacitors compare to the values of the individual capacitors?
A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of the capacitances in the
combination
B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value of capacitance
in the combination
C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the capacitances in
the combination
D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact capacitances
SUBELEMENT 3AF - Circuit Components (2 Questions)
203. What are the four common types of resistor construction?
A. Carbon-film, metal-film, micro-film and wire-film
B. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, metal-film and wire-wound
C. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, electrolytic and metal-film
D. Carbon-film, ferrite, carbon-composition and metal-film
204. What is the primary function of a resistor?
A. To store an electric charge
B. To store a magnetic field
C. To match a high-impedance source to a low-impedance load
D. To limit the current in an electric circuit
205. What is a variable resistor?
A. A resistor that changes value when an AC voltage is applied to it
B. A device that can transform a variable voltage into a constant
voltage
C. A resistor with a slide or contact that makes the resistance
adjustable
D. A resistor that changes value when it is heated
206. What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate?
A. The value of the resistor in ohms
B. The resistance tolerance in percent
C. The power rating in watts
D. The value of the resistor in henrys
207. How can a carbon resistor's electrical tolerance rating be found?
A. By using a wavemeter
B. By using the resistor's color code
C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
D. By using the Baudot code
208. What does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate?
A. The value of the resistor in ohms
B. The resistance tolerance in percent
C. The power rating in watts
D. The resistor composition
209. When the color bands on a group of resistors indicate that they all have
the same resistance, what further information about each resistor is needed
in order to select those that have nearly equal value?
A. The working voltage rating of each resistor
B. The composition of each resistor
C. The tolerance of each resistor
D. The current rating of each resistor
210. Why do resistors generate heat?
A. They convert electrical energy to heat energy
B. They exhibit reactance
C. Because of skin effect
D. To produce thermionic emission
211. Why would a large size resistor be substituted for a smaller one of the
same resistance?
A. To obtain better response
B. To obtain a higher current gain
C. To increase power dissipation capability
D. To produce a greater parallel impedance
212. What is the symbol used to represent a fixed resistor on schematic
diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 3AF-1-5.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
213. What is the symbol used to represent a variable resistor on schematic
diagrams. (Please refer to Diagram 3AF-1-5.2)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
214. What is an inductor core?
A. The point at which an inductor is tapped to produce resonance
B. A tight coil of wire used in a transformer
C. An insulating material placed between the plates of an inductor
D. The central portion of a coil; may be made from air, iron, brass or
other material
215. What are the component parts of a coil?
A. The wire in the winding and the core material
B. Two conductive plates and an insulating material
C. Two or more layers of silicon material
D. A donut-shaped iron core and a layer of insulating tape
216. Describe an inductor.
A. A semiconductor in a conducting shield
B. Two parallel conducting plates
C. A straight wire conductor mounted inside a Faraday shield
D. A coil of conducting wire
217. For radio frequency power applications, which type of inductor has the
least amount of loss?
A. Magnetic wire
B. Iron core
C. Air core
D. Slug tuned
218. What is an inductor?
A. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric field
B. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a lower
voltage
C. An electronic component that opposes DC while allowing AC to pass
D. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field
219. What are the electrical properties of an inductor?
A. An inductor stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change
in voltage
B. An inductor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change
in current
C. An inductor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change
in current
D. An inductor stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change
in voltage
220. What factors determine the amount of inductance in a coil?
A. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the core and
whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically
B. The diameter of the core, the number of turns of wire used to wind
the coil and the type of metal used in the wire
C. The type of material used in the core, the number of turns used to
wind the core and the frequency of the current through the coil
D. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the core, the
length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil
221. What can be done to raise the inductance of a 5-microhenry air-core coil
to a 5-millihenry coil with the same physical dimensions?
A. The coil can be wound on a non-conducting tube
B. The coil can be wound on an iron core
C. Both ends of the coil can be brought around to form the shape of a
donut, or toroid
D. The coil can be made of a heavier-gauge wire
222. As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the inductance?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. It becomes voltage-dependent
223. As a brass core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the inductance?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. It becomes voltage-dependent
224. What is the symbol used to represent an adjustable inductor on schematic
diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 3AF-2-4.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
225. What is the symbol used to represent an iron-core inductor on schematic
diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 3AF-2-4.2)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
226. What is the symbol used to represent an inductor wound over a toroidal
core on schematic diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 3AF-2-4.3)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
227. What is a capacitor dielectric?
A. The insulating material used for the plates
B. The conducting material used between the plates
C. The ferrite material that the plates are mounted on
D. The insulating material between the plates
228. What are the component parts of a capacitor?
A. Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material between
them
B. The wire used in the winding and the core material
C. Two or more layers of silicon material
D. Two insulating plates with a conductive material between them
229. What is an electrolytic capacitor?
A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer
B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of mica
insulation
C. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of plates through
electrochemical action
D. A capacitor whose value varies with applied voltage
230. What is a paper capacitor?
A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer
B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of mica
insulation
C. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a layer of paper
D. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of plates through
electrochemical action
231. What is a capacitor?
A. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field
B. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric field
C. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a lower
voltage
D. An electronic component that converts power into heat
232. What are the electrical properties of a capacitor?
A. A capacitor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a change
in current
B. A capacitor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes a change
in current
C. A capacitor stores a charge electromechanically and opposes a change
in voltage
D. A capacitor stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a change
in voltage
233. What factors must be considered when selecting a capacitor for a
circuit?
A. Type of capacitor, capacitance and voltage rating
B. Type of capacitor, capacitance and the kilowatt-hour rating
C. The amount of capacitance, the temperature coefficient and the KVA
rating
D. The type of capacitor, the microscopy coefficient and the temperature
coefficient
234. How are the characteristics of a capacitor usually specified?
A. In volts and amperes
B. In microfarads and volts
C. In ohms and watts
D. In millihenrys and amperes
235. What factors determine the amount of capacitance in a capacitor?
A. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the area
of one side of one plate, the separation between the plates and the number
of plates
B. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the
number of plates and the diameter of the leads connected to the plates
C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the
dielectric material is N type or P type
D. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates, the
surface area of one side of one plate, the number of plates and the type of
material used for the protective coating
236. As the plate area of a capacitor is increased, what happens to its
capacitance?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Stays the same
D. Becomes voltage dependent
237. As the plate spacing of a capacitor is increased, what happens to its
capacitance?
A. Increases
B. Stays the same
C. Becomes voltage dependent
D. Decreases
238. What is the symbol used to represent an electrolytic capacitor on
schematic diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 3AF-3-4.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
239. What is the symbol used to represent a variable capacitor on schematic
diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 3AF-3-4.2)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
SUBELEMENT 3AG - Practical Circuits (1 Question)
240. Which frequencies are attenuated by a low-pass filter?
A. Those above its cut-off frequency
B. Those within its cut-off frequency
C. Those within 50 kHz on either side of its cut-off frequency
D. Those below its cut-off frequency
241. What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain frequency and
blocks electrical energy above that frequency?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A high-pass filter
C. An input filter
D. A low-pass filter
242. Why does virtually every modern transmitter have a built-in low-pass
filter connected to its output?
A. To attenuate frequencies below its cutoff point
B. To attenuate low frequency interference to other amateurs
C. To attenuate excess harmonic radiation
D. To attenuate excess fundamental radiation
243. You believe that excess harmonic radiation from your transmitter is
causing interference to your television receiver. What is one possible
solution for this problem?
A. Install a low-pass filter on the television receiver
B. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter output
C. Install a high-pass filter on the transmitter output
D. Install a band-pass filter on the television receiver
244. What circuit passes electrical energy above a certain frequency and
attenuates electrical energy below that frequency?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A high-pass filter
C. An input filter
D. A low-pass filter
245. Where is the proper place to install a high-pass filter?
A. At the antenna terminals of a television receiver
B. Between a transmitter and a Transmatch
C. Between a Transmatch and the transmission line
D. On a transmitting antenna
246. Your Amateur Radio transmissions cause interference to your television
receiver even though you have installed a low-pass filter at the transmitter
output. What is one possible solution for this problem?
A. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter terminals
B. Install a high-pass filter at the television antenna terminals
C. Install a low-pass filter at the television antenna terminals also
D. Install a band-pass filter at the television antenna terminals
247. What circuit attenuates electrical energy above a certain frequency and
below a lower frequency?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A high-pass filter
C. An input filter
D. A low-pass filter
248. What general range of RF energy does a band-pass filter reject?
A. All frequencies above a specified frequency
B. All frequencies below a specified frequency
C. All frequencies above the upper limit of the band in question
D. All frequencies above a specified frequency and below a lower
specified frequency
249. The IF stage of a communications receiver uses a filter with a peak
response at the intermediate frequency. What term describes this filter
response?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A high-pass filter
C. An input filter
D. A low-pass filter
250. What circuit is likely to be found in all types of receivers?
A. An audio filter
B. A beat frequency oscillator
C. A detector
D. An RF amplifier
251. What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent? (Please
refer to Diagram 3AG-4-1.2)
A. A simple packet-radio transmitter
B. A simple crystal-controlled transmitter
C. A single-sideband transmitter
D. A VFO-controlled transmitter
252. What type of transmitter does this block diagram represent? (Please
refer to Diagram 3AG-4-1.3)
A. A simple packet-radio transmitter
B. A simple crystal-controlled transmitter
C. A single-sideband transmitter
D. A VFO-controlled transmitter
253. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 3AG-4-1.4)
A. An AGC circuit
B. A detector
C. A power supply
D. A VFO circuit
254. What type of device does this block diagram represent? (Please refer
to Diagram 3AG-4-1.5)
A. A double-conversion receiver
B. A variable-frequency oscillator
C. A simple superheterodyne receiver
D. A simple CW transmitter
255. What type of device does this block diagram represent? (Please refer
to Diagram 3AG-4-2.1)
A. A double-conversion receiver
B. A variable-frequency oscillator
C. A simple superheterodyne receiver
D. A simple FM receiver
256. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 3AG-4-2.2)
A. A band-pass filter
B. A crystal oscillator
C. A reactance modulator
D. A rectifier modulator
SUBELEMENT 3AH - Signals and Emissions (2 Questions)
257. What is the meaning of the term modulation?
A. The process of varying some characteristic of a carrier wave for the
purpose of conveying information
B. The process of recovering audio information from a received signal
C. The process of increasing the average power of a single-sideband
transmission
D. The process of suppressing the carrier in a single-sideband
transmitter
258. What is emission type N0N?
A. Unmodulated carrier
B. Telegraphy by on-off keying
C. Telegraphy by keyed tone
D. Telegraphy by frequency-shift keying
259. What emission does not have sidebands resulting from modulation?
A. A3E
B. N0N
C. F3E
D. F2B
260. What is the FCC emission designator for a Morse code telegraphy signal
produced by switching the transmitter output on and off?
A. N0N
B. A3E
C. A1A
D. F1B
261. What is emission type A1A?
A. Morse code telegraphy using amplitude modulation
B. Morse code telegraphy using frequency modulation
C. Morse code telegraphy using phase modulation
D. Morse code telegraphy using pulse modulation
262. What is emission type F1B?
A. Amplitude-keyed telegraphy
B. Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy
C. Frequency-modulated telephony
D. Phase-modulated telephony
263. What is the emission symbol for telegraphy by frequency shift keying
without the use of a modulating tone?
A. F1B
B. F2B
C. A1A
D. J3E
264. What emission type results when an on/off keyed audio tone is applied
to the microphone input of an FM transmitter?
A. F1B
B. F2A
C. A1A
D. J3E
265. What is emission type F2A?
A. Telephony produced by audio fed into an FM transmitter
B. Telegraphy produced by an on/off keyed audio tone fed into an AM
transmitter
C. Telegraphy produced by on/off keying of the carrier amplitude
D. Telegraphy produced by an on/off keyed audio tone fed into an FM
transmitter
266. What is emission type F2B?
A. Frequency-modulated telegraphy using audio tones
B. Frequency-modulated telephony
C. Frequency-modulated facsimile using audio tones
D. Phase-modulated television
267. What emissions are used in teleprinting?
A. F1A, F2B and F1B
B. A2B, F1B and F2B
C. A1B, A2B and F2B
D. A2B, F1A and F2B
268. What emission type results when an AF shift keyer is connected to the
microphone jack of an emission F3E transmitter?
A. A2B
B. F1B
C. F2B
D. A1F
269. What is emission type F2D?
A. A data transmission produced by modulating an FM transmitter with
audio tones
B. A telemetry transmission produced by modulating an FM transmitter
with two sidebands
C. A data transmission produced by modulating an FM transmitter with
pulse modulation
D. A telemetry transmission produced by modulating an SSB transmitter
with phase modulation
270. What FCC emission designator describes a packet-radio transmission
through an FM transmitter?
A. F1D
B. F2D
C. F2B
D. F1B
271. What is emission type F3E?
A. AM telephony
B. AM telegraphy
C. FM telegraphy
D. FM telephony
272. What is the emission symbol for telephony by frequency modulation?
A. F2B
B. F3E
C. A3E
D. F1B
273. What is the FCC emission designator for telephony by phase modulation?
A. J3E
B. F1B
C. G3E
D. F3E
274. What is emission type G3E?
A. Phase-modulated telegraphy
B. Frequency-modulated telegraphy
C. Frequency-modulated telephony
D. Phase-modulated telephony
275. What is the term used to describe a constant-amplitude radio-frequency
signal?
A. An RF carrier
B. An AF carrier
C. A sideband carrier
D. A subcarrier
276. What is another name for an unmodulated radio-frequency signal?
A. An AF carrier
B. An RF carrier
C. A sideband carrier
D. A subcarrier
277. What characteristic makes emission F3E especially well-suited for local
VHF/UHF radio communications?
A. Good audio fidelity and intelligibility under weak-signal conditions
B. Better rejection of multipath distortion than the AM modes
C. Good audio fidelity and high signal-to-noise ratio above a certain
signal amplitude threshold
D. Better carrier frequency stability than the AM modes
278. What emission is produced by a transmitter using a reactance modulator?
A. A1A
B. N0N
C. J3E
D. G3E
279. What other emission does phase modulation most resemble?
A. Amplitude modulation
B. Pulse modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Single-sideband modulation
280. Many communications receivers have several IF filters that can be
selected by the operator. Why do these filters have different bandwidths?
A. Because some ham bands are wider than others
B. Because different bandwidths help increase the receiver sensitivity
C. Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings
D. Because some emission types occupy a wider frequency range than
others
281. List the following signals in order of increasing bandwidth (narrowest
signal first): CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice.
A. RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice
B. CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice
C. CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice
D. CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice
282. To what is the deviation of an emission F3E transmission proportional?
A. Only the frequency of the audio modulating signal
B. The frequency and the amplitude of the audio modulating signal
C. The duty cycle of the audio modulating signal
D. Only the amplitude of the audio modulating signal
283. What is the result of overdeviation in an emission F3E transmitter?
A. Increased transmitter power consumption
B. Out-of-channel emissions (splatter)
C. Increased transmitter range
D. Inadequate carrier suppression
284. What is splatter?
A. Interference to adjacent signals caused by excessive transmitter
keying speeds
B. Interference to adjacent signals caused by improper transmitter
neutralization
C. Interference to adjacent signals caused by overmodulation of a
transmitter
D. Interference to adjacent signals caused by parasitic oscillations at
the antenna
SUBELEMENT 3AI - Antennas and Feed Lines (3 Questions)
285. What antenna type best strengthens signals from a particular direction
while attenuating those from other directions?
A. A beam antenna
B. An isotropic antenna
C. A monopole antenna
D. A vertical antenna
286. What is a directional antenna?
A. An antenna whose parasitic elements are all constructed to be
directors
B. An antenna that radiates in direct line-of-sight propagation, but not
skywave or skip propagation
C. An antenna permanently mounted so as to radiate in only one direction
D. An antenna that radiates more strongly in some directions than others
287. What is a Yagi antenna?
A. Half-wavelength elements stacked vertically and excited in phase
B. Quarter-wavelength elements arranged horizontally and excited out of
phase
C. Half-wavelength linear driven element(s) with parasitically excited
parallel linear elements
D. Quarter-wavelength, triangular loop elements
288. What is the general configuration of the radiating elements of a
horizontally-polarized Yagi?
A. Two or more straight, parallel elements arranged in the same
horizontal plane
B. Vertically stacked square or circular loops arranged in parallel
horizontal planes
C. Two or more wire loops arranged in parallel vertical planes
D. A vertical radiator arranged in the center of an effective RF ground
plane
289. What type of parasitic beam antenna uses two or more straight metal-
tubing elements arranged physically parallel to each other?
A. A delta loop antenna
B. A quad antenna
C. A Yagi antenna
D. A Zepp antenna
290. How many directly-driven elements does a Yagi antenna have?
A. None; they are all parasitic
B. One
C. Two
D. All elements are directly driven
291. What is a parasitic beam antenna?
A. An antenna where the director and reflector elements receive their
RF excitation by induction or radiation from the driven element
B. An antenna where wave traps are used to assure magnetic coupling
among the elements
C. An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the
feed line
D. An antenna where the driven element receives its RF excitation by
induction or radiation from the directors
292. What is a cubical quad antenna?
A. Four parallel metal tubes, each approximately 1/2 electrical
wavelength long
B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one
electrical wavelength long
C. A vertical conductor 1/4 electrical wavelength high, fed at the
bottom
D. A center-fed wire 1/2 electrical wavelength long
293. What kind of antenna array is composed of a square full-wave closed loop
driven element with parallel parasitic element(s)?
A. Delta loop
B. Cubical quad
C. Dual rhombic
D. Stacked Yagi
294. Approximately how long is one side of the driven element of a cubical
quad antenna?
A. 2 electrical wavelengths
B. 1 electrical wavelength
C. 1/2 electrical wavelength
D. 1/4 electrical wavelength
295. Approximately how long is the wire in the driven element of a cubical
quad antenna?
A. 1/4 electrical wavelength
B. 1/2 electrical wavelength
C. 1 electrical wavelength
D. 2 electrical wavelengths
296. What is a delta loop antenna?
A. A variation of the cubical quad antenna, with triangular elements
B. A large copper ring, used in direction finding
C. An antenna system composed of three vertical antennas, arranged in
a triangular shape
D. An antenna made from several coils of wire on an insulating form
297. To what does the term horizontal as applied to wave polarization refer?
A. The magnetic lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the
earth's surface
B. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the
earth's surface
C. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to
the earth's surface
D. The radio wave will leave the antenna and radiate horizontally to the
destination
298. What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have
when the feed point is in the center of a horizontal side?
A. Circular
B. Helical
C. Horizontal
D. Vertical
299. What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have
when all sides are at 45 degrees to the earth's surface and the feed point
is at the bottom corner?
A. Circular
B. Helical
C. Horizontal
D. Vertical
300. What is the polarization of electromagnetic waves radiated from a half-
wavelength antenna perpendicular to the earth's surface?
A. Circularly polarized waves
B. Horizontally polarized waves
C. Parabolically polarized waves
D. Vertically polarized waves
301. What is the electromagnetic wave polarization of most man-made
electrical noise radiation in the HF-VHF spectrum?
A. Horizontal
B. Left-hand circular
C. Right-hand circular
D. Vertical
302. To what does the term vertical as applied to wave polarization refer?
A. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are parallel to the
earth's surface
B. The magnetic lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to
the earth's surface
C. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are perpendicular to
the earth's surface
D. The radio wave will leave the antenna and radiate vertically into the
ionosphere
303. What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have
when the feed point is in the center of a vertical side?
A. Circular
B. Helical
C. Horizontal
D. Vertical
304. What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical quad antenna have
when all sides are at 45 degrees to the earth's surface and the feed point
is at a side corner?
A. Circular
B. Helical
C. Horizontal
D. Vertical
305. What is meant by the term standing wave ratio?
A. The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line
B. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a feed line
C. The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line
D. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line
306. What is standing wave ratio a measure of?
A. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltage on a feed line
B. The ratio of maximum to minimum reactance on a feed line
C. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistance on a feed line
D. The ratio of maximum to minimum sidebands on a feed line
307. What is meant by the term forward power?
A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna
B. The power radiated from the front of a directional antenna
C. The power produced during the positive half of the RF cycle
D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier
308. What is meant by the term reflected power?
A. The power radiated from the back of a directional antenna
B. The power returned to the transmitter from the antenna
C. The power produced during the negative half of the RF cycle
D. Power reflected to the transmitter site by buildings and trees
309. What happens to the power loss in an unbalanced feed line as the
standing wave ratio increases?
A. It is unpredictable
B. It becomes nonexistent
C. It decreases
D. It increases
310. What type of feed line is best suited to operating at a high standing
wave ratio?
A. Coaxial cable
B. Flat ribbon "twin lead"
C. Parallel open-wire line
D. Twisted pair
311. What happens to RF energy not delivered to the antenna by a lossy
coaxial cable?
A. It is radiated by the feed line
B. It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground
C. Some of it is dissipated as heat in the conductors and dielectric
D. It is canceled because of the voltage ratio of forward power to
reflected power in the feed line
312. What is a balanced line?
A. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground
B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to balance out
harmonics
C. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at even
intervals
D. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground
313. What is an unbalanced line?
A. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground
B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to suppress
harmonics
C. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground
D. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at uneven
intervals
314. What is a balanced antenna?
A. A symmetrical antenna with one side of the feed point connected to
ground
B. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is symmetrical
about the feed point
C. A symmetrical antenna with both sides of the feed point connected to
ground, to balance out harmonics
D. An antenna designed to be mounted in the center
315. What is an unbalanced antenna?
A. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is not symmetrical
about the feed point
B. A symmetrical antenna, having neither half connected to ground
C. An antenna (or a driven element in a array) that is symmetrical about
the feed point
D. A symmetrical antenna with both halves coupled to ground at uneven
intervals
316. What device can be installed on a balanced antenna so that it can be fed
through a coaxial cable?
A. A balun
B. A loading coil
C. A triaxial transformer
D. A wavetrap
317. What is a balun?
A. A device that can be used to convert an antenna designed to be fed
at the center so that it may be fed at one end
B. A device that may be installed on a balanced antenna so that it may
be fed with unbalanced feed line
C. A device that can be installed on an antenna to produce horizontally
polarized or vertically polarized waves
D. A device used to allow an antenna to operate on more than one band
318. List the following types of feed line in order of increasing attenuation
per 100 feet of line (list the line with the lowest attenuation first): RG-
8, RG-58, RG-174 and open-wire line.
A. RG-174, RG-58, RG-8, open-wire line
B. RG-8, open-wire line, RG-58, RG-174
C. open-wire line, RG-8, RG-58, RG-174
D. open-wire line, RG-174, RG-58, RG-8
319. You have installed a tower 150 feet from your radio shack, and have a
6-meter Yagi antenna on top. Which of the following feed lines should you
choose to feed this antenna:
RG-8, RG-58, RG-59 or RG-174?
A. RG-8
B. RG-58
C. RG-59
D. RG-174
320. You have a 200-foot coil of RG-58 coaxial cable attached to your
antenna, but the antenna is only 50 feet from your radio. To minimize feed-
line loss, what should you do with the excess cable?
A. Cut off the excess cable to an even number of wavelengths long
B. Cut off the excess cable to an odd number of wavelengths long
C. Cut off the excess cable
D. Roll the excess cable into a coil a tenth of a wavelength in diameter
321. How does feed-line length affect signal loss?
A. The length has no effect on signal loss
B. As length increases, signal loss increases
C. As length decreases, signal loss increases
D. The length is inversely proportional to signal loss
322. What is the general relationship between frequencies passing through a
feed line and the losses in the feed line?
A. Loss is independent of frequency
B. Loss increases with increasing frequency
C. Loss decreases with increasing frequency
D. There is no predictable relationship
323. As the operating frequency decreases, what happens to conductor losses
in a feed line?
A. The losses decrease
B. The losses increase
C. The losses remain the same
D. The losses become infinite
324. As the operating frequency increases, what happens to conductor losses
in a feed line?
A. The losses decrease
B. The losses increase
C. The losses remain the same
D. The losses decrease to zero
325. You are using open-wire feed line in your Amateur Radio station. Why
should you ensure that no one can come in contact with the feed line while
you are transmitting?
A. Because contact with the feed line while transmitting will cause a
short circuit, probably damaging your transmitter
B. Because the wire is so small they may break it
C. Because contact with the feed line while transmitting will cause
parasitic radiation
D. Because high RF voltages can be present on open-wire feed line
326. How can you minimize exposure to radio frequency energy from your
transmitting antennas?
A. Use vertical polarization
B. Use horizontal polarization
C. Mount the antennas where no one can come near them
D. Mount the antenna close to the ground
1. A (3AA-1.1)
2. B (3AA-1.2)
3. B (3AA-2.1)
4. C (3AA-2.2)
5. B (3AA-2.3)
6. A (3AA-2.4)
7. B (3AA-2.5)
8. A (3AA-3.1)
9. A (3AA-3.2)
10. A (3AA-3.3)
11. B (3AA-4.1)
12. A (3AA-4.2)
13. A (3AA-4.3)
14. D (3AA-5.1)
15. C (3AA-5.2)
16. C (3AA-6-1.1)
17. D (3AA-6-1.2)
18. C (3AA-6-2.1)
19. D (3AA-6-3.1)
20. B (3AA-6-4.1)
21. C (3AA-7-1.1)
22. B (3AA-7-1.2)
23. D (3AA-7-1.3)
24. C (3AA-7-2.1)
25. C (3AA-7-2.2)
26. A (3AA-7-3.1)
27. D (3AA-7-3.2)
28. D (3AA-7-3.3)
29. B (3AA-8-1.1)
30. B (3AA-8-2.1)
31. C (3AA-8-3.1)
32. A (3AA-9-1.1)
33. A (3AA-9-2.1)
34. A (3AA-10.1)
35. C (3AA-10.2)
36. D (3AA-10.3)
37. B (3AA-10.4)
38. A (3AA-11-1.1)
39. B (3AA-11-1.2)
40. A (3AA-11-1.3)
41. D (3AA-11-2.1)
42. A (3AA-11-2.2)
43. C (3AA-11-2.3)
44. A (3AA-11-2.4)
45. A (3AA-12.1)
46. C (3AA-12.2)
47. B (3AA-12.3)
48. D (3AA-12.4)
49. C (3AA-12.5)
50. B (3AA-13.1)
51. D (3AA-13.2)
52. D (3AA-13.3)
53. C (3AA-13.4)
54. D (3AA-14.1)
55. C (3AA-14.2)
56. D (3AA-14.3)
57. A (3AA-15.1)
58. C (3AA-15.2)
59. D (3AA-15.3)
60. B (3AA-15.4)
61. B (3AA-16.1)
62. D (3AA-16.2)
63. C (3AA-16.3)
64. A (3AA-17.1)
65. A (3AB-1.1)
66. C (3AB-1.2)
67. D (3AB-1.3)
68. B (3AB-2-1.1)
69. C (3AB-2-1.2)
70. A (3AB-2-1.3)
71. D (3AB-2-1.4)
72. B (3AB-2-1.5)
73. B (3AB-2-1.6)
74. D (3AB-2-1.7)
75. C (3AB-2-2.1)
76. C (3AB-2-2.2)
77. D (3AB-2-3.1)
78. B (3AB-2-3.2)
79. A (3AB-2-3.3)
80. C (3AB-2-3.4)
81. D (3AB-2-4.1)
82. A (3AB-3.1)
83. B (3AB-3.2)
84. C (3AB-3.3)
85. A (3AB-4.1)
86. D (3AB-4.2)
87. C (3AB-5-1.1)
88. B (3AB-5-1.2)
89. D (3AB-5-2.1)
90. A (3AB-6-1.1)
91. A (3AB-6-1.2)
92. D (3AB-6-2.1)
93. B (3AB-6-3.1)
94. C (3AB-6-3.2)
95. A (3AC-1-1.1)
96. D (3AC-1-1.2)
97. C (3AC-1-1.3)
98. A (3AC-1-2.1)
99. B (3AC-1-2.2)
100. B (3AC-1-3.1)
101. D (3AC-1-4.1)
102. B (3AC-1-4.2)
103. C (3AC-1-4.3)
104. D (3AC-2.1)
105. B (3AC-2.2)
106. A (3AC-2.3)
107. B (3AC-2.4)
108. D (3AC-3.1)
109. C (3AC-3.2)
110. A (3AC-3.3)
111. B (3AC-3.4)
112. D (3AC-4.1)
113. C (3AC-4.2)
114. A (3AC-4.3)
115. C (3AC-5.1)
116. C (3AC-5.2)
117. A (3AC-6.1)
118. B (3AC-6.2)
119. C (3AC-7.1)
120. A (3AC-7.2)
121. D (3AC-7.3)
122. A (3AC-7.4)
123. B (3AC-7.5)
124. D (3AC-7.6)
125. C (3AD-1-1.1)
126. D (3AD-1-1.2)
127. B (3AD-1-1.3)
128. B (3AD-1-1.4)
129. A (3AD-1-2.1)
130. A (3AD-1-2.2)
131. A (3AD-1-2.3)
132. C (3AD-1-3.1)
133. B (3AD-2-1.1)
134. C (3AD-2-2.1)
135. A (3AD-3-1.1)
136. D (3AD-3-2.1)
137. D (3AD-4.1)
138. A (3AD-5-1.1)
139. C (3AD-5-1.2)
140. B (3AD-5-1.3)
141. A (3AD-5-1.4)
142. B (3AD-5-2.1)
143. C (3AD-5-2.2)
144. A (3AD-6.1)
145. D (3AD-6.2)
146. A (3AD-6.3)
147. C (3AD-7.1)
148. B (3AD-7.2)
149. D (3AD-8-1.1)
150. D (3AD-8-1.2)
151. A (3AD-8-2.1)
152. C (3AD-8-2.2)
153. D (3AD-9.1)
154. B (3AD-9.2)
155. C (3AD-9-3)
156. B (3AD-9.4)
157. A (3AD-9.5)
158. A (3AD-9.6)
159. C (3AD-10.1)
160. A (3AD-10.2)
161. B (3AD-11-1.1)
162. A (3AD-11-1.2)
163. D (3AD-11-2.1)
164. B (3AD-11-2.2)
165. C (3AD-11-2.3)
166. D (3AD-11-2.4)
167. B (3AD-11-2.5)
168. C (3AD-11-3.1)
169. D (3AE-1-1.1)
170. A (3AE-1-2.1)
171. D (3AE-1-2.2)
172. B (3AE-1-3.1)
173. D (3AE-1-3.2)
174. B (3AE-1-4.1)
175. C (3AE-1-4.2)
176. D (3AE-2.1)
177. A (3AE-2.2)
178. C (3AE-2.3)
179. D (3AE-2.4)
180. B (3AE-2.5)
181. D (3AE-2.6)
182. D (3AE-2.7)
183. A (3AE-2.8)
184. A (3AE-2.9)
185. C (3AE-3-1.1)
186. C (3AE-3-2.1)
187. C (3AE-3-2.2)
188. B (3AE-3-2.3)
189. C (3AE-3-2.4)
190. B (3AE-3-3.1)
191. C (3AE-3-3.2)
192. A (3AE-3-4.1)
193. B (3AE-3-4.2)
194. A (3AE-4-1.1)
195. A (3AE-4-2.1)
196. B (3AE-4-2.2)
197. A (3AE-4-2.3)
198. B (3AE-4-2.4)
199. C (3AE-4-3.1)
200. B (3AE-4-3.2)
201. A (3AE-4-4.1)
202. A (3AE-4-4.2)
203. B (3AF-1-1.1)
204. D (3AF-1-2.1)
205. C (3AF-1-2.2)
206. A (3AF-1-3.1)
207. B (3AF-1-3.2)
208. B (3AF-1-3.3)
209. C (3AF-1-3.4)
210. A (3AF-1-4.1)
211. C (3AF-1-4.2)
212. B (3AF-1-5.1)
213. C (3AF-1-5.2)
214. D (3AF-2-1.1)
215. A (3AF-2-1.2)
216. D (3AF-2-1.3)
217. C (3AF-2-1.4)
218. D (3AF-2-2.1)
219. C (3AF-2-2.2)
220. D (3AF-2-3.1)
221. B (3AF-2-3.2)
222. A (3AF-2-3.3)
223. B (3AF-2-3.4)
224. A (3AF-2-4.1)
225. B (3AF-2-4.2)
226. C (3AF-2-4.3)
227. D (3AF-3-1.1)
228. A (3AF-3-1.2)
229. C (3AF-3-1.3)
230. C (3AF-3-1.4)
231. B (3AF-3-2.1)
232. D (3AF-3-2.2)
233. A (3AF-3-2.3)
234. B (3AF-3-2.4)
235. A (3AF-3-3.1)
236. B (3AF-3-3.2)
237. D (3AF-3-3.3)
238. D (3AF-3-4.1)
239. A (3AF-3-4.2)
240. A (3AG-1-1.1)
241. D (3AG-1-1.2)
242. C (3AG-1-2.1)
243. B (3AG-1-2.2)
244. B (3AG-2-1.1)
245. A (3AG-2-2.1)
246. B (3AG-2-2.2)
247. A (3AG-3-1.1)
248. D (3AG-3-1.2)
249. A (3AG-3-2.1)
250. C (3AG-4-1.1)
251. D (3AG-4-1.2)
252. B (3AG-4-1.3)
253. B (3AG-4-1.4)
254. C (3AG-4-1.5)
255. D (3AG-4-2.1)
256. D (3AG-4-2.2)
257. A (3AH-1.1)
258. A (3AH-2-1.1)
259. B (3AH-2-1.2)
260. C (3AH-2-2.1)
261. A (3AH-2-2.2)
262. B (3AH-2-3.1)
263. A (3AH-2-3.2)
264. B (3AH-2-4.1)
265. D (3AH-2-4.2)
266. A (3AH-2-5.1)
267. B (3AH-2-5.2)
268. C (3AH-2-5.3)
269. A (3AH-2-6.1)
270. B (3AH-2-6.2)
271. D (3AH-2-7.1)
272. B (3AH-2-7.2)
273. C (3AH-2-8.1)
274. D (3AH-2-8.2)
275. A (3AH-3.1)
276. B (3AH-3.2)
277. C (3AH-4.1)
278. D (3AH-5.1)
279. C (3AH-5.2)
280. D (3AH-6.1)
281. C (3AH-6-1.2)
282. D (3AH-7-1.1)
283. B (3AH-7-2.1)
284. C (3AH-7-2.2)
285. A (3AI-1-1.1)
286. D (3AI-1-1.2)
287. C (3AI-1-1.3)
288. A (3AI-1-1.4)
289. C (3AI-1-1.5)
290. B (3AI-1-1.6)
291. A (3AI-1-1.7)
292. B (3AI-1-2.1)
293. B (3AI-1-2.2)
294. D (3AI-1-2.3)
295. C (3AI-1-2.4)
296. A (3AI-1-3.1)
297. B (3AI-2-1.1)
298. C (3AI-2-1.2)
299. C (3AI-2-1.3)
300. D (3AI-2-2.1)
301. D (3AI-2-2.2)
302. C (3AI-2-2.3)
303. D (3AI-2-2.4)
304. D (3AI-2-2.5)
305. D (3AI-3-1.1)
306. A (3AI-3-1.2)
307. A (3AI-3-2.1)
308. B (3AI-3-2.2)
309. D (3AI-3-3.1)
310. C (3AI-3-3.2)
311. C (3AI-3-3.3)
312. D (3AI-4-1.1)
313. C (3AI-4-1.2)
314. B (3AI-4-2.1)
315. A (3AI-4-2.2)
316. A (3AI-4-3.1)
317. B (3AI-4-3.2)
318. C (3AI-5-1.1)
319. A (3AI-5-1.2)
320. C (3AI-5-2.1)
321. B (3AI-5-2.2)
322. B (3AI-5-3.1)
323. A (3AI-5-3.2)
324. B (3AI-5-3.3)
325. D (3AI-6-1.1)
326. C (3AI-6-2.1)
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