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Sample questions for the Novice test
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This is an ASCII text version of the Amateur Novice Class question pool.
Direct any questions to [email protected].
73 de WB5ULK
SUBELEMENT 2A - Rules and Regulations (10 Questions)
One (1) question must be from the following:
1. What are the five principles that express the fundamental purpose for
which the Amateur Radio Service rules are designed?
A. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the radio
art, improvement of communication and technical skills, increase in the
number of trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhan-
cement of international goodwill
B. Recognition of business communications, advancement of the radio art,
improvement of communication and business skills, increase in the number of
trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhancement of
international goodwill
C. Recognition of emergency communications, preservation of the earliest
radio techniques, improvement of communication and technical skills, maintain
a pool of people familiar with early tube-type equipment, and the enhancement
of international goodwill
D. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the radio
art, improvement of communication and technical skills, increase in the
number of trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhan-
cement of a sense of patriotism and nationalism
2. Which of the following is not one of the basic principles for which the
Amateur Radio Service rules are defined?
A. Providing emergency communications
B. Improvement of communication and technical skills
C. Advancement of the radio art
D. Enhancement of a sense of patriotism and nationalism
3. The Amateur Radio Service rules were defined to provide a radio
communications service that meets five fundamental purposes. Which of the
following is not one of those principles?
A. Improvement of communication and technical skills
B. Enhancement of international goodwill
C. Increase the number of trained radio operators and electronics
experts
D. Preserving the history of radio communications
4. The Amateur Radio Service rules were defined to provide a radio
communications service that meets five fundamental purposes. What are those
principles?
A. Recognition of business communications, advancement of the radio art,
improvement of communication and business skills, increase in the number of
trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhancement of
international goodwill
B. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the radio
art, improvement of communication and technical skills, increase in the
number of trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhan-
cement of international goodwill
C. Recognition of emergency communications, preservation of the earliest
radio techniques, improvement of communication and technical skills, maintain
a pool of people familiar with early tube-type equipment, and the enhancement
of international goodwill
D. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the radio
art, improvement of communication and technical skills, increase in the
number of trained radio operators and electronics experts, and the enhan-
cement of a sense of patriotism and nationalism
5. What is the Amateur Radio Service?
A. A private radio service used for personal gain and public benefit
B. A public radio service used for public service communications
C. A radio communication service for self-training and technical
experimentation
D. A private radio service intended for the furtherance of commercial
radio interests
6. What name is given to the radio communication service that is designed
for self-training and technical experimentation?
A. The Amateur Radio Service
B. The Citizen's Radio Service
C. The Experimenter's Radio Service
D. The Maritime Radio Service
7. What is Amateur Radio communication?
A. Non-commercial radio communication between Amateur Radio stations
with a personal aim and without pecuniary interest
B. Commercial radio communications between radio stations licensed to
non-profit organizations and businesses
C. Experimental or educational radio transmissions controlled by student
operators
D. Non-commercial radio communications intended for the education and
benefit of the general public
8. What is the term used to describe non-commercial radio communications
conducted with a personal aim and without pecuniary interest?
A. Experimental Radio communications
B. Personal Radio communications
C. Non-commercial Radio communications
D. Amateur Radio communications
9. Who is an Amateur Radio operator?
A. A person who has not received any training in radio operations
B. Someone who performs communications in the Amateur Radio Service
C. A person who performs private radio communications for hire
D. A trainee in a commercial radio station
10. What is the term used to describe someone who performs communications
in the Amateur Radio Service?
A. A Citizen Radio operator
B. A Personal Radio operator
C. A Radio Service operator
D. An Amateur Radio operator
One (1) question must be from the following:
11. What is the portion of an Amateur Radio license that conveys operator
privileges?
A. The verification section
B. Form 610
C. The operator license
D. The station license
12. What authority is derived from an Amateur Radio operator license?
A. The authority to operate any shortwave radio station
B. The authority to operate an Amateur Radio station
C. The authority to have an Amateur Radio station at a particular
location
D. The authority to transmit on either amateur or Class D citizen's band
frequencies
13. What authority is derived from an Amateur Radio station license?
A. The authority to use specified operating frequencies
B. The authority to have an Amateur Radio station at a particular
location
C. The authority to enforce FCC Rules when violations are noted on the
part of other operators
D. The authority to transmit on either amateur or Class D citizen's band
frequencies
14. What part of your Amateur Radio license gives you authority to have an
Amateur Radio station at a particular location?
A. The operator license
B. The FCC Form 610
C. The station license
D. An Amateur Radio license does not specify a station location
15. What is an Amateur Radio station?
A. A licensed radio station engaged in broadcasting to the public in a
limited and well-defined area
B. A radio station used to further commercial radio interests
C. A private radio service used for personal gain and public service
D. A radio station operated by a person interested in self-training,
intercommunication and technical investigation
16. Who is a control operator?
A. A licensed operator designated to be responsible for the emissions
of a particular station
B. A person, either licensed or not, who controls the emissions of an
Amateur Radio Station
C. An unlicensed person who is speaking over an Amateur Radio Station's
microphone while a licensed person is present
D. A government official who comes to an Amateur Radio Station to take
control for test purposes
17. As an Amateur Radio station licensee, you may designate another Amateur
Radio operator to be responsible for the emissions from your station. What
is this other operator called?
A. Auxiliary operator
B. Operations coordinator
C. Third party
D. Control operator
18. List the five United States Amateur Radio license classes in order of
increasing privileges.
A. Novice, General, Technician, Advanced, Amateur Extra
B. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Digital
C. Novice, Technician, General, Amateur, Extra
D. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Amateur Extra
19. Which US Amateur Radio operator license is considered to be the "entry
level" or "beginner's" license?
A. The Novice class license
B. The CB license
C. The Technician class license
D. The Amateur class License
20. What is the license class immediately above Novice class?
A. The Digital class license
B. The Technician class license
C. The General class license
D. The Experimenter's class license
One (1) question must be from the following:
21. What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 80-
meter band?
A. 3500 to 4000 kHz
B. 3700 to 3750 kHz
C. 7100 to 7150 kHz
D. 7000 to 7300 kHz
22. What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 40-
meter band?
A. 3500 to 4000 kHz
B. 3700 to 3750 kHz
C. 7100 to 7150 kHz
D. 7000 to 7300 kHz
23. What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 15-
meter band?
A. 21.100 to 21.200 MHz
B. 21.000 to 21.450 MHz
C. 28.000 to 29.700 MHz
D. 28.100 to 28.200 MHz
24. What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 10-
meter band?
A. 28.000 to 29.700 MHz
B. 28.100 to 28.300 MHz
C. 28.100 to 28.500 MHz
D. 28.300 to 28.500 MHz
25. What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 220-
MHz band?
A. 225.0 to 230.5 MHz
B. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz
C. 224.1 to 225.1 MHz
D. 222.2 to 224.0 MHz
26. What frequencies may a Novice control operator use in the amateur 1270-
MHz band?
A. 1260 to 1270 MHz
B. 1240 to 1300 MHz
C. 1270 to 1295 MHz
D. 1240 to 1246 MHz
27. If you are operating your Amateur Radio station on 3725 kHz, in what
meter band are you operating?
A. 80 meters
B. 40 meters
C. 15 meters
D. 10 meters
28. If you are operating your Amateur Radio station on 7125 kHz, in what
meter band are you operating?
A. 80 meters
B. 40 meters
C. 15 meters
D. 10 meters
29. If you are operating your Amateur Radio station on 21150 kHz, in what
meter band are you operating?
A. 80 meters
B. 40 meters
C. 15 meters
D. 10 meters
30. If you are operating your Amateur Radio station on 28150 kHz, in what
meter band are you operating?
A. 80 meters
B. 40 meters
C. 15 meters
D. 10 meters
One (1) question must be from the following:
31. Who is eligible to obtain a US Amateur Radio operator license?
A. Anyone except a representative of a foreign government
B. Only a citizen of the United States
C. Anyone
D. Anyone except an employee of the United States Government
32. Who is not eligible to obtain a US Amateur Radio operator license?
A. Any citizen of a country other than the United States
B. A representative of a foreign government
C. No one
D. An employee of the United States Government
33. What FCC examination elements are required for a Novice class license?
A. Elements 1(A) and 2(A)
B. Elements 1(B) and 2
C. Elements 1(A) and 2
D. Elements 1 and 2
34. What is an FCC Element 1(A) examination intended to prove?
A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 words per
minute
B. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 words
per minute
C. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations
D. The applicant's ability to recognize Novice frequency assignments and
operating modes
35. What is an FCC Element 2 examination?
A. A test of the applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at
5 words per minute
B. The written examination for the Technician class operator license
C. A test of the applicant's ablility to recognize Novice frequency
assignments
D. The written examination for the Novice class operator license
36. Who is eligible to obtain a US Amateur Radio station license?
A. A licensed Amateur Radio operator
B. Any unlicensed person, except an agent of a foreign government
C. Any unlicensed person, except an employee of the United States
Government
D. Any unlicensed United States Citizen
37. Why is an Amateur Radio operator required to furnish the FCC with a
current mailing address?
A. So the FCC has a record of the location of each Amateur Radio station
B. So the FCC can direct correspondence to the licensee
C. So the FCC can send license-renewal notices
D. So the FCC can compile a list for use in a call sign directory
38. Which one of the following call signs is a valid US amateur call?
A. UA4HAK
B. KBL7766
C. KA9OLS
D. BY7HY
39. Which one of the following call signs is a valid US amateur call?
A. CE2FTF
B. G3GVA
C. UA1ZAM
D. AA2Z
40. Which one of the following call signs is not a valid US amateur call?
A. KDV5653
B. WA1DVU
C. KA5BUG
D. NT0Z
41. What letters may be used for the first letter in a valid US amateur call
sign?
A. K, N, U and W
B. A, K, N and W
C. A, B, C and D
D. A, N, V and W
42. Excluding special-event call signs that may be issued by the FCC, what
numbers may be used in a valid US call sign?
A. Any double-digit number, 10 through 99
B. Any double-digit number, 22 through 45
C. Any single digit, 1 though 9
D. A single digit, 0 through 9
43. Your Novice license was issued on November 1, 1988. When will it expire?
A. November 1, 1998
B. November 30, 1998
C. November 1, 1993
D. November 1, 1990
One (1) question must be from the following:
44. What does the term emission mean?
A. RF signals transmitted from a radio station
B. Signals refracted by the E layer
C. Filter out the carrier of a received signal
D. Baud rate
45. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on the
amateur 80-meter band?
A. A1A only
B. F1B only
C. A80A only
D. A1A and J3E only
46. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use in the
40-meter band?
A. A1A only
B. F1B only
C. A40A only
D. A1A and J3E only
47. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use in the
15-meter band?
A. A1A only
B. F1B only
C. A15A only
D. A1A and J3E only
48. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use from
3700 to 3750 kHz?
A. A1A and F1B only
B. A1A and J3E only
C. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on those
frequencies
D. A1A only
49. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use from
7100 to 7150 kHz?
A. A1A and F1B only
B. A1A and J3E only
C. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on those
frequencies
D. A1A only
50. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on
frequencies from 21.1 to 21.2 MHz?
A. A1A and F1B only
B. A1A and J3E only
C. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on those
frequencies
D. A1A only
51. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on
frequencies from 28.1 to 28.3 MHz?
A. All authorized amateur emission privileges
B. F1B and J3E
C. A1A and F1B
D. A1A and J3E
52. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on
frequencies from 28.3 to 28.5 MHz?
A. All authorized amateur emission privileges
B. A1A and F1B
C. A1A and J3E
D. A1A and F3E
53. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on the
amateur 220-MHz band?
A. F1B and J3E
B. A1A and F1B
C. A1A and J3E
D. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on 220 MHz
54. What emission types are Novice control operators permitted to use on the
amateur 1270-MHz band?
A. F1B and J3E
B. A1A and F1B
C. A1A and J3E
D. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on 1270 MHz
55. On what frequencies may a Novice control operator operate single-
sideband voice?
A. 3700 to 3750 kHz
B. 7100 to 7150 kHz
C. 21100 to 21200 kHz
D. 28300 to 28500 kHz
56. On what frequencies may a Novice control operator operate FM voice?
A. 28.3 to 28.5 MHz
B. 144.0 to 148.0 MHz
C. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz
D. 1240 to 1270 MHz
One (1) question must be from the following:
57. What amount of output transmitting power may a Novice class control
operator use when operating below 30 MHz?
A. 200 watts input
B. 250 watts output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. The minimum legal power necessary to maintain reliable communications
58. What is the maximum transmitting power ever permitted to be used by an
amateur station transmitting in the 80, 40 and 15-meter Novice bands?
A. 75 watts PEP output
B. 100 watts PEP output
C. 200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
59. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station
transmitting on 3725 kHz?
A. 75 watts PEP output
B. 100 watts PEP output
C. 200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
60. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station
transmitting on 7125 kHz?
A. 75 watts PEP output
B. 100 watts PEP output
C. 200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
61. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station
transmitting on 21.125 MHz?
A. 75 watts PEP output
B. 100 watts PEP output
C. 200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
62. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station with
a Novice control operator transmitting on 28.125 MHz?
A. 75 watts PEP output
B. 100 watts PEP output
C. 200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
63. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station with
a Novice control operator transmitting in the amateur 10-meter band?
A. 25 watts PEP output
B. 200 watts PEP output
C. 1000 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
64. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station with
a Novice control operator transmitting in the amateur 220-MHz band?
A. 5 watts PEP output
B. 10 watts PEP output
C. 25 watts PEP output
D. 200 watts PEP output
65. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station with
a Novice control operator transmitting in the amateur 1270-MHz band?
A. 5 milliwatts PEP output
B. 500 milliwatts PEP output
C. 1 watt PEP output
D. 5 watts PEP output
66. What amount of transmitting power may an amateur station with a Novice
control operator use in the amateur 220-MHz band?
A. Not less than 5 watts PEP output
B. The minimum legal power necessary to maintain reliable communications
C. Not more than 50 watts PEP output
D. Not more than 200 watts PEP output
67. What term is used to describe amateur communications intended to be
received and printed automatically?
A. Teleport communications
B. Direct communications
C. Digital communications
D. Third-party communications
68. What term is used to describe amateur communications for the direct
transfer of information between computers?
A. Teleport communications
B. Direct communications
C. Digital communications
D. Third-party communications
69. On what frequencies in the 10-meter band are Novice control operators
permitted to transmit emission F1B RTTY?
A. 28.1 to 28.5 MHz
B. 28.0 to 29.7 MHz
C. 28.1 to 28.2 MHz
D. 28.1 to 28.3 MHz
One (1) question must be from the following:
70. Who is held responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station?
A. Only the control operator
B. Only the station licensee
C. Both the control operator and the station licensee
D. The person who owns the property where the station is located
71. You allow another Amateur Radio operator to use your amateur station.
What are your responsibilities, as the station licensee?
A. You are responsible for the proper operation of your station
B. Only the control operator is responsible for the proper operation of
the station
C. As the station licensee, you must be at the control point of your
station whenever it is operated
D. You must notify the FCC when another amateur will be the control
operator of your station
72. What is your primary responsibility as the station licensee?
A. You must permit any licensed amateur radio operator to operate your
station at any time upon request
B. You must be present whenever the station is operated
C. You must notify the FCC in writing whenever another amateur radio
operator will act as the control operator
D. You are responsible for the proper operation of the station for which
you are licensed
73. You are the licensee of an Amateur Radio station. When are you not
responsible for its proper operation?
A. Only when another licensed amateur is the control operator
B. The licensee is responsible for the proper operation of the station
for which he/she is licensed
C. Only after notifying the FCC in writing that another licensed amateur
will assume responsibility for the proper operation of your station
D. Only when your station is in repeater operation
74. When must an amateur station have a control operator?
A. A control operator is only required for training purposes
B. Whenever the station receiver is operated
C. Whenever the transmitter is operated, except when the station is
under automatic control
D. A control operator is not required
75. Another amateur gives you permission to use her Amateur Radio station.
What are your responsibilities, as the control operator?
A. You are responsible for the proper operation of the station
B. Only the station licensee is responsible for the proper operation of
the station
C. You must be certain the station licensee has given proper FCC notice
that you will be the control operator
D. You must inspect all antennas and related equipment to ensure they
are working properly
76. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station?
A. Any person over 21 years of age
B. Any licensed Amateur Radio operator
C. Any licensed Amateur Radio operator with an Advanced class license
or higher
D. Any person over 21 years of age with a General class license or
higher
77. Where must an Amateur Radio operator be when he or she is performing the
duties of control operator?
A. Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter
B. At the control point of the Amateur Radio station
C. At the station entrance, to control entry to the room
D. Within sight of the station monitor, to view the output spectrum of
the transmitter
78. Where must you keep your Amateur Radio operator license when you are
operating a station?
A. Your original operator license must always be posted in plain view
B. Your original operator license must always be taped to the inside
front cover of your station log
C. You must have the original or a photocopy of your operator license
in your possession
D. You must have the original or a photocopy of your operator license
posted at your primary station location. You need not have the original
license nor a copy in your possession to operate another station
79. Where must you keep your Amateur Radio station license when your station
is being operated?
A. Your original station license must always be taped to the inside
front cover of your station log
B. Your original station license must always be posted in plain view
C. You must post the original or a photocopy of your station license at
the main entrance to the transmitter building
D. You must post the original or a photocopy of your station license
near your station or keep it in the personal possession of the licensed
operator
One (1) question must be from the following:
80. How often must an amateur station be identified?
A. At the beginning of the contact and at least every ten minutes during
a contact
B. At least once during each transmission
C. At least every ten minutes during a contact and at the end of the
contact
D. Every 15 minutes during a contact and at the end of the contact
81. As an Amateur Radio operator, how should you correctly identify your
station communications?
A. With the name and location of the control operator
B. With the station call sign
C. With the call of the control operator, even when he or she is
visiting another radio amateur's station
D. With the name and location of the station licensee, followed by the
two-letter designation of the nearest FCC Field Office
82. What station identification, if any, is required at the beginning of a
QSO?
A. The operator originating the contact must transmit both call signs
B. No identification is required at the beginning of the contact
C. Both operators must transmit their own call signs
D. Both operators must transmit both call signs
83. What station identification, if any, is required at the end of a QSO?
A. Both operators must transmit their own call sign
B. No identification is required at the end of the contact
C. The operator originating the contact must always transmit both call
signs
D. Both operators must transmit their own call sign followed by a two-
letter designator for the nearest FCC field office
84. What do the FCC Rules for amateur station identification require?
A. Each Amateur Radio station shall give its call sign at the beginning
of each communication, and every ten minutes or less during a communication
B. Each Amateur Radio station shall give its call sign at the end of
each communication, and every ten minutes or less during a communication
C. Each Amateur Radio station shall give its call sign at the beginning
of each communication, and every five minutes or less during a communication
D. Each Amateur Radio station shall give its call sign at the end of
each communication, and every five minutes or less during a communication
85. What is the fewest number of times you must transmit your Amateur Radio
station identification during a 25 minute QSO?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
86. What is the longest period of time during a QSO that an amateur station
does not need to transmit its station identification?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
87. With which amateur stations may an FCC-licensed amateur station
communicate?
A. All amateur stations
B. All public noncommercial radio stations unless prohibited by the
station's government
C. Only with US amateur stations
D. All amateur stations, unless prohibited by the amateur's government
88. With which non-Amateur Radio stations may an FCC-licensed amateur
station communicate?
A. No non-amateur stations
B. All such stations
C. Only those authorized by the FCC
D. Only those who use the International Morse code
89. When must the licensee of an Amateur Radio station in portable or mobile
operation notify the FCC?
A. One week in advance if the operation will last for more than 24 hours
B. FCC notification is not required for portable or mobile operation
C. One week in advance if the operation will last for more than a week
D. One month in advance of any portable or mobile operation
90. When may you operate your Amateur Radio station at a location within the
United States, its territories or possessions other than the one listed on
your station license?
A. Only during times of emergency
B. Only after giving proper notice to the FCC
C. During an emergency or an FCC-approved emergency preparedness drill
D. Whenever you want to
91. When are business communications permitted in the Amateur Radio Service?
A. Only when the immediate safety of life of individuals or property is
threatened
B. There are no rules against conducting business communications in the
Amateur Radio Service
C. No business communications of any kind are ever permitted in the
Amateur Radio Service
D. Business communications are permitted between the hours of 9 AM to
5 PM, only on weekdays
92. You wish to obtain an application for membership in the American Radio
Relay League. When would you be permitted to send an Amateur Radio message
requesting the application?
A. At any time, since the ARRL is a not-for-profit organization
B. Never. Business communications are not permitted in the Amateur
Radio service
C. Only during normal business hours, between 9 AM and 5 PM
D. At any time, since there are no rules against conducting business
communications in the Amateur Radio Service
93. On your way home from work you decide to order pizza for dinner. When
would you be permitted to use the autopatch on your radio club repeater to
order the pizza?
A. At any time, since you will not profit from the communications
B. Only during normal business hours, between 9 AM and 5 PM
C. At any time, since there are no rules against conducting business
communications in the Amateur Radio Service
D. Never. Business communications are not permitted in the Amateur
Radio service
One (1) question must be from the following:
94. When may an FCC-licensed Amateur Radio operator communicate with an
Amateur Radio operator in a foreign country?
A. Only when the foreign operator uses English as his primary language
B. All the time, except on 28.600 to 29.700 MHz
C. Only when a third party agreement exists between the US and the
foreign country
D. At any time unless prohibited by either the US or the foreign
government
95. When may an Amateur Radio station be used to transmit messages for hire?
A. Under no circumstances may an Amateur Radio station be hired to
transmit messages
B. Modest payment from a non-profit charitable organization is
permissible
C. No money may change hands, but a radio amateur may be compensated for
services rendered with gifts of equipment or services rendered as a returned
favor
D. All payments received in return for transmitting messages by Amateur
Radio must be reported to the IRS
96. When may the control operator be paid to transmit messages from an
Amateur Radio station?
A. The control operator may be paid if he or she works for a public
service agency such as the Red Cross
B. The control operator may not be paid under any circumstances
C. The control operator may be paid if he or she reports all income
earned from operating an Amateur Radio Station to the IRS as receipt of tax-
deductible contributions
D. The control operator may be paid if he or she works for an Amateur
Radio Station that operates primarily to broadcast telegraphy practice and
news bulletins for Radio Amateurs
97. When is an Amateur Radio operator permitted to broadcast information
intended for the general public?
A. Amateur Radio operators are not permitted to broadcast information
intended for the general public
B. Only when the operator is being paid to transmit the information
C. Only when such transmissions last less than 1 hour in any 24-hour
period
D. Only when such transmissions last longer than 15 minutes
98. What is third-party traffic?
A. A message passed by one Amateur Radio control operator to another
Amateur Radio control operator on behalf of another person
B. Public service communications handled on behalf of a minor political
party
C. Only messages that are formally handled through Amateur Radio
channels
D. A report of highway conditions transmitted over a local repeater
99. Who is a third-party in Amateur Radio communications?
A. The Amateur Radio station that breaks into a two-way contact between
two other Amateur Radio stations
B. Any person passing a message through Amateur Radio communication
channels other than the control operators of the two stations handling the
message
C. A shortwave listener monitoring a two-way Amateur Radio communication
D. The control operator present when an unlicensed person communicates
over an Amateur Radio station
100. When is an Amateur Radio operator permitted to transmit a message to a
foreign country for a third party?
A. Anytime
B. Never
C. Anytime, unless there is a third-party traffic agreement between the
US and the foreign government
D. Only if there is a third-party traffic agreement between the US and
the foreign government
101. When is an Amateur Radio operator permitted to transmit music?
A. The transmission of music is not permitted in the Amateur Radio
Service
B. When the music played produces no disonances or spurious emissions
C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
D. Only above 1280 MHz
102. When is the transmission by radio of messages in codes or ciphers
permitted in domestic and international communications between Amateur Radio
stations?
A. Codes and ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored contests
B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during nationally declared
emergencies
C. The transmission of codes and ciphers is not permitted in domestic
or international Amateur Radio communications
D. Codes and ciphers are permitted above 1280 MHz
103. When is an Amateur Radio operator permitted to use abbreviations that
are intended to obscure the meaning of the message?
A. Only during ARRL-sponsored contests
B. Only on frequencies above 222.5 MHz
C. Only during a declared communications emergency
D. Abbreviations that are intended to obscure the meaning of the message
may never be used
One (1) question must be from the following:
104. Under what circumstances, if any, may the control operator cause false
or deceptive signals or communications to be transmitted?
A. Under no circumstances
B. When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt" exercise
C. When playing a harmless "practical joke" without causing interference
to other stations that are not involved
D. When you need to obscure the meaning of transmitted information to
ensure secrecy
105. If an Amateur Radio operator transmits the word "MAYDAY" when no actual
emergency has occurred, what is this called?
A. A traditional greeting in May
B. An Emergency Action System test transmission
C. False or deceptive signals
D. "MAYDAY" has no significance in an emergency situation
106. When may an Amateur Radio operator transmit unidentified communications?
A. A transmission need not be identified if it is restricted to brief
tests not intended for reception by other parties
B. A transmission need not be identified when conducted on a clear
frequency or "dead band" where interference will not occur
C. An amateur operator may never transmit unidentified communications
D. A transmission need not be identified unless two-way communications
or third-party traffic handling are involved
107. What is the meaning of the term unidentified radio communications or
signals?
A. Radio communications in which the transmitting station's call sign
is transmitted in modes other than CW and voice
B. Radio communications approaching a receiving station from an unknown
direction
C. Radio communications in which the operator fails to transmit his or
her name and QTH
D. Radio communications in which the transmitting station's call sign
is not transmitted
108. What is the term used to describe a transmission from an Amateur Radio
station without the required station identification?
A. Unidentified transmission
B. Reluctance modulation
C. N0N emission
D. Tactical communication
109. When may an Amateur Radio operator willfully or maliciously interfere
with a radio communication or signal?
A. You may jam another's transmissions if that person is not operating
in a legal manner
B. You may interfere with another station's signals if that station
begins transmitting on a frequency already occupied by your station
C. You may never intentionally interfere with another station's
transmissions
D. You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it is
unavoidable during crowded band conditions
110. What is the meaning of the term malicious interference?
A. Accidental interference
B. Intentional interference
C. Mild interference
D. Occasional interference
111. What is the term used to describe an Amateur Radio transmission that is
intended to disrupt other communications in progress?
A. Interrupted CW
B. Malicious interference
C. Transponded signals
D. Unidentified transmissions
112. As an Amateur Radio operator, you receive an Official Notice of
Violation from the FCC. How promptly must you respond?
A. Within 90 days
B. Within 30 days
C. Within 10 days
D. The next day
113. As an Amateur Radio operator, you receive an Official Notice of
Violation from the FCC. To whom must you respond?
A. Any office of the FCC
B. The Gettysburg, PA office of the FCC
C. The Washington, DC office of the FCC
D. The FCC office that originated the notice
114. As an Amateur Radio operator, you receive an Official Notice of
Violation from the FCC relating to a violation that may be due to the
physical or electrical characteristics of your transmitting apparatus. What
information must be included in your response to the FCC?
A. The make and model of the apparatus
B. The steps taken to guarantee future violations
C. The date that the apparatus was returned to the manufacturer
D. The steps taken to prevent future violations
SUBELEMENT 2B - Operating Procedures (2 Questions)
One (1) question must be from the following:
115. What is the most important factor to consider when selecting a
transmitting frequency within your authorized subband?
A. The frequency should not be in use by other amateurs
B. You should be able to hear other stations on the frequency to ensure
that someone will be able to hear you
C. Your antenna should be resonant at the selected frequency
D. You should ensure that the SWR on the antenna feed line is high
enough at the selected frequency
116. You wish to contact an Amateur Radio station more than 1500 miles away
on a summer afternoon. Which band is most likely to provide a successful
contact?
A. The 80- or 40-meter bands
B. The 40- or 15-meter bands
C. The 15- or 10-meter bands
D. The 1-1/4 meter or 23-centimeter bands
117. How can on-the-air transmitter tune-up be kept as short as possible?
A. By using a random wire antenna
B. By tuning up on 40 meters first, then switching to the desired band
C. By tuning the transmitter into a dummy load
D. By using twin lead instead of coaxial-cable feed lines
118. You are having a QSO with your uncle in Pittsburgh when you hear an
emergency call for help on the frequency you are using. What should you do?
A. Inform the station that the frequency is in use
B. Direct the station to the nearest emergency net frequency
C. Call your local Civil Preparedness Office and inform them of the
emergency
D. Immediately stand by to copy the emergency communication
119. What is the format of a standard Morse code CQ call?
A. Transmit the procedural signal "CQ" three times, followed by the
procedural signal "DE", followed by your call three times
B. Transmit the procedural signal "CQ" three times, followed by the
procedural signal "DE", followed by your call one time
C. Transmit the procedural signal "CQ" ten times, followed by the
procedural signal "DE", followed by your call one time
D. Transmit the procedural signal "CQ" continuously until someone
answers your call
120. How should you answer a Morse code CQ call?
A. Send your call sign four times
B. Send the other station's call sign twice, followed by the procedural
signal "DE", followed by your call sign twice
C. Send the other station's call sign once, followed by the procedural
signal "DE", followed by your call sign four times
D. Send your call sign followed by your name, station location and a
signal report
121. At what telegraphy speed should a "CQ" message be transmitted?
A. Only speeds below five WPM
B. The highest speed your keyer will operate
C. Any speed at which you can reliably receive
D. The highest speed at which you can control the keyer
122. What is the meaning of the Morse code character AR?
A. Only the called station transmit
B. All received correctly
C. "Over" or End of transmission
D. Best regards
123. What is the meaning of the Morse code character SK?
A. Received some correctly
B. Best regards
C. Wait
D. End of contact
124. What is the meaning of the Morse code character BT?
A. Double dash "="
B. Fraction bar "/"
C. End of contact
D. Back to you
125. What is the meaning of the Morse code character DN?
A. Double dash "="
B. Fraction bar "/"
C. Done now (end of contact)
D. Called station only transmit
126. What is the meaning of the Morse code character KN?
A. Fraction bar "/"
B. End of contact
C. Called station only transmit
D. Key now (go ahead to transmit)
127. What is the procedural signal "CQ" used for?
A. To notify another station that you will call on the quarter hour
B. To indicate that you are testing a new antenna and are not listening
for another station to answer
C. To indicate that only the called station should transmit
D. A general call when you are trying to make a contact
128. What is the procedural signal "DE" used for?
A. To mean "from" or "this is," as in "W9NGT de N9BTT"
B. To indicate directional emissions from your antenna
C. To indicate "received all correctly"
D. To mean "calling any station"
129. What is the procedural signal "K" used for?
A. To mean "any station transmit"
B. To mean "all received correctly"
C. To mean "end of message"
D. To mean "called station only transmit"
130. What does the R in the RST signal report mean?
A. The recovery of the signal
B. The resonance of the CW tone
C. The rate of signal flutter
D. The readability of the signal
131. What does the S in the RST signal report mean?
A. The scintillation of a signal
B. The strength of the signal
C. The signal quality
D. The speed of the CW transmission
132. What does the T in the RST signal report mean?
A. The tone of the signal
B. The closeness of the signal to "telephone" quality
C. The timing of the signal dot to dash ratio
D. The tempo of the signal
133. What is one meaning of the Q signal "QRS"?
A. Interference from static
B. Send more slowly
C. Send RST report
D. Radio station location is
134. What is one meaning of the Q signal "QRT"?
A. The correct time is
B. Send RST report
C. Stop sending
D. Send more slowly
135. What is one meaning of the Q signal "QTH"?
A. Time here is
B. My name is
C. Stop sending
D. My location is ...
136. What is one meaning of the Q signal "QRZ," when it is followed with a
question mark?
A. Who is calling me?
B. What is your radio zone?
C. What time zone are you in?
D. Is this frequency in use?
137. What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSL," when it is followed with a
question mark?
A. Shall I send you my log?
B. Can you acknowledge receipt (of my message)?
C. Shall I send more slowly?
D. Who is calling me?
138. What is the format of a standard radiotelephone CQ call?
A. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is,"
followed by your call sign at least two times
B. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is,"
followed by your call sign once
C. Transmit the phrase "CQ" three times, followed by "this is," followed
by your call sign three times
D. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is,"
followed by your call sign once
139. How should you answer a radiotelephone CQ call?
A. Transmit the other station's call sign at least ten times, followed
by "this is," followed by your call sign at least twice
B. Transmit the other station's call sign at least five times
phoetically, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign at least once
C. Transmit the other station's call sign at least three times, followed
by "this is," followed by your call sign at least five times phonetically
D. Transmit the other station's call sign once, followed by "this is,"
followed by your call sign given phonetically
140. How is the call sign "KA3BGQ" stated in Standard International
Phonetics?
A. Kilo Alfa Three Bravo Golf Quebec
B. King America Three Bravo Golf Quebec
C. Kilowatt Alfa Three Bravo George Queen
D. Kilo America Three Baker Golf Quebec
141. How is the call sign "WE5TZD" stated phonetically?
A. Whiskey Echo Foxtrot Tango Zulu Delta
B. Washington England Five Tokyo Zanzibar Denmark
C. Whiskey Echo Five Tango Zulu Delta
D. Whiskey Easy Five Tear Zebra Dog
142. How is the call sign "KC4HRM" stated phonetically?
A. Kilo Charlie Four Hotel Romeo Mike
B. Kilowatt Charlie Four Hotel Roger Mexico
C. Kentucky Canada Four Honolulu Radio Mexico
D. King Charlie Foxtrot Hotel Roger Mary
143. How is the call sign "AF6PSQ" stated phonetically?
A. America Florida Six Portugal Spain Quebec
B. Adam Frank Six Peter Sugar Queen
C. Alfa Fox Sierra Papa Santiago Queen
D. Alfa Foxtrot Six Papa Sierra Quebec
144. How is the call sign "NB8LXG" stated phonetically?
A. November Bravo Eight Lima Xray Golf
B. Nancy Baker Eight Love Xray George
C. Norway Boston Eight London Xray Germany
D. November Bravo Eight London Xray Germany
145. How is the call sign "KJ1UOI" stated phonetically?
A. King John One Uncle Oboe Ida
B. Kilowatt George India Uncle Oscar India
C. Kilo Juliette One Uniform Oscar India
D. Kentucky Juliette One United Ontario Indiana
146. How is the call sign "WV2BPZ" stated phonetically?
A. Whiskey Victor Two Bravo Papa Zulu
B. Willie Victor Two Baker Papa Zebra
C. Whiskey Victor Tango Bravo Papa Zulu
D. Willie Virginia Two Boston Peter Zanzibar
147. How is the call sign "NY3CTJ" stated phonetically?
A. Norway Yokohama Three California Tokyo Japan
B. Nancy Yankee Three Cat Texas Jackrabbit
C. Norway Yesterday Three Charlie Texas Juliette
D. November Yankee Three Charlie Tango Juliette
148. How is the call sign "KG7DRV" stated phonetically?
A. Kilo Golf Seven Denver Radio Venezuela
B. Kilo Golf Seven Delta Romeo Victor
C. King John Seven Dog Radio Victor
D. Kilowatt George Seven Delta Romeo Video
149. How is the call sign "WX9HKS" stated phonetically?
A. Whiskey Xray Nine Hotel Kilo Sierra
B. Willie Xray November Hotel King Sierra
C. Washington Xray Nine Honolulu Kentucky Santiago
D. Whiskey Xray Nine Henry King Sugar
150. How is the call sign "AE0LQY" stated phonetically?
A. Able Easy Zero Lima Quebec Yankee
B. Arizona Equador Zero London Queen Yesterday
C. Alfa Echo Zero Lima Quebec Yankee
D. Able Easy Zero Love Queen Yoke
One (1) question must be from the following:
151. What is the format of a standard RTTY CQ call?
A. Transmit the phrase "CQ" three times, followed by "DE", followed by
your call sign two times
B. Transmit the phrase "CQ" three to six times, followed by "DE,"
followed by your call sign three times
C. Transmit the phrase "CQ" ten times, followed by the procedural signal
"DE", followed by your call one time
D. Transmit the phrase "CQ" continuously until someone answers your call
152. You receive an RTTY CQ call at 45 bauds. At what speed should you
respond?
A. 22-1/2 bauds
B. 45 bauds
C. 90 bauds
D. Any speed, since radioteletype systems adjust to any signal rate
153. What does the term connected mean in a packet-radio link?
A. A telephone link has been established between two amateurs
B. An Amateur Radio message has reached the station for local delivery
C. The transmitting station is sending data specifically addressed to
the receiving station, and the receiving station is acknowledging that the
data has been received correctly
D. The transmitting station and a receiving station are using a certain
digipeater, so no other contacts can take place until they are finished
154. What does the term monitoring mean on a frequency used for packet radio?
A. The FCC is copying all messages to determine their content
B. A member of the Amateur Auxilliary to the FCC's Field Operations
Bureau is copying all messages to determine their content
C. The receiving station's video monitor is displaying all messages
intended for that station, and is acknowledging correct receipt of the data
D. The receiving station is displaying information that may not be
addressed to that station, and is not acknowledging correct receipt of the
data
155. What is a digipeater?
A. A packet-radio station used to retransmit data that is specifically
addressed to be retransmitted by that station
B. An Amateur Radio repeater designed to retransmit all audio signals
in a digital form
C. An Amateur Radio repeater designed using only digital electronics
components
D. A packet-radio station that retransmits any signals it receives
156. What is the meaning of the term network in packet radio?
A. A system of telephone lines interconnecting packet-radio stations to
transfer data
B. A method of interconnecting packet-radio stations so that data can
be transferred over long distances
C. The interlaced wiring on a terminal-node-controller board
D. The terminal-node-controller function that automatically rejects
another caller when the station is connected
157. What is a good way to establish a contact on a repeater?
A. Give the call sign of the station you want to contact three times
B. Call the other operator by name and then give your call sign three
times
C. Call the desired station and then identify your own station
D. Say, "Breaker, breaker," and then give your call sign
158. What is the main purpose of a repeater?
A. To provide a station that makes local information available 24 hours
a day
B. To provide a means of linking Amateur Radio stations with the
telephone system
C. To retransmit NOAA weather information during severe storm warnings
D. Repeaters extend the operating range of portable and mobile stations
159. What does it mean to say that a repeater has an input and an output
frequency?
A. The repeater receives on one frequency and transmits on another
B. All repeaters offer a choice of operating frequency, in case one is
busy
C. One frequency is used to control repeater functions and the other
frequency is the one used to retransmit received signals
D. Repeaters require an access code to be transmitted on one frequency
while your voice is transmitted on the other
160. When should simplex operation be used instead of using a repeater?
A. Whenever greater communications reliability is needed
B. Whenever a contact is possible without using a repeater
C. Whenever you need someone to make an emergency telephone call
D. Whenever you are traveling and need some local information
161. What is an autopatch?
A. A repeater feature that automatically selects the strongest signal
to be repeated
B. An automatic system of connecting a mobile station to the next
repeater as it moves out of range of the first
C. A device that allows repeater users to make telephone calls from
their portable or mobile stations
D. A system that automatically locks other stations out of the repeater
when there is a QSO in progress
162. What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer?
A. It allows the repeater to have a rest period after heavy use
B. It logs repeater transmit time to determine when the repeater mean
time between failure rating is exceeded
C. It limits repeater transmission time to no more than ten minutes
D. It limits repeater transmission time to no more than three minutes
SUBELEMENT 2C - Radio-Wave Propagation (1 Question)
One (1) question must be from the following:
163. What type of radio-wave propagation occurs when the signal travels in
a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna?
A. Line-of-sight propagation
B. Straight-line propagation
C. Knife-edge diffraction
D. Tunnel propagation
164. What path do radio waves usually follow from a transmitting antenna to
a receiving antenna at VHF and higher frequencies?
A. A bent path through the ionosphere
B. A straight line
C. A great circle path over either the north or south pole
D. A circular path going either east or west from the transmitter
165. What type of propagation involves radio signals that travel along the
surface of the Earth?
A. Sky-wave propagation
B. Knife-edge diffraction
C. E-layer propagation
D. Ground-wave propagation
166. What is the meaning of the term ground-wave propagation?
A. Signals that travel along seismic fault lines
B. Signals that travel along the surface of the earth
C. Signals that are radiated from a ground-plane antenna
D. Signals that are radiated from a ground station to a satellite
167. Two Amateur Radio stations a few miles apart and separated by a low hill
blocking their line-of-sight path are communicating on 3.725 MHz. What type
of propagation is probably being used?
A. Tropospheric ducting
B. Ground wave
C. Meteor scatter
D. Sporadic E
168. When compared to sky-wave propagation, what is the usual effective range
of ground-wave propagation?
A. Much smaller
B. Much greater
C. The same
D. Dependent on the weather
169. What type of propagation uses radio signals refracted back to earth by
the ionosphere?
A. Sky wave
B. Earth-moon-earth
C. Ground wave
D. Tropospheric
170. What is the meaning of the term sky-wave propagation?
A. Signals reflected from the moon
B. Signals refracted by the ionosphere
C. Signals refracted by water-dense cloud formations
D. Signals retransmitted by a repeater
171. What does the term skip mean?
A. Signals are reflected from the moon
B. Signals are refracted by water-dense cloud formations
C. Signals are retransmitted by repeaters
D. Signals are refracted by the ionosphere
172. What is the area of weak signals between the ranges of ground waves and
the first hop called?
A. The skip zone
B. The hysteresis zone
C. The monitor zone
D. The transequatorial zone
173. What is the meaning of the term skip zone?
A. An area covered by skip propagation
B. The area where a satellite comes close to the earth, and skips off
the ionosphere
C. An area that is is too far for ground-wave propagation, but too close
for skip propagation
D. The area in the atmosphere that causes skip propagation
174. What type of radio wave propagation makes it possible for amateur
stations to communicate long distances?
A. Direct-inductive propagation
B. Knife-edge diffraction
C. Ground-wave propagation
D. Sky-wave propagation
175. How long is an average sunspot cycle?
A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. 11 years
D. 22 years
176. What is the term used to describe the long-term variation in the number
of visible sunspots?
A. The 11-year cycle
B. The Solar magnetic flux cycle
C. The hysteresis count
D. The sunspot cycle
177. What affect does the number of sunspots have on the maximum usable
frequency (MUF)?
A. The more sunspots there are, the higher the MUF will be
B. The more sunspots there are, the lower the MUF will be
C. The MUF is equal to the square of the number of sunspots
D. The number of sunspots effects the lowest usable frequency (LUF) but
not the MUF
178. What affect does the number of sunspots have on the ionization level in
the atmosphere?
A. The more sunspots there are, the lower the ionization level will be
B. The more sunspots there are, the higher the ionization level will be
C. The ionization level of the ionosphere is equal to the square root
of the number of sunspots
D. The ionization level of the ionosphere is equal to the square of the
number of sunspots
179. Why can a VHF or UHF radio signal that is transmitted toward a mountain
often be received at some distant point in a different direction?
A. You can never tell what direction a radio wave is traveling in
B. These radio signals are easily bent by the ionosphere
C. These radio signals are easily reflected by objects in their path
D. These radio signals are sometimes scattered in the ectosphere
180. Why can the direction that a VHF or UHF radio signal is traveling be
changed if there is a tall building in the way?
A. You can never tell what direction a radio wave is traveling in
B. These radio signals are easily bent by the ionosphere
C. These radio signals are easily reflected by objects in their path
D. These radio signals are sometimes scattered in the ectosphere
SUBELEMENT 2D - Amateur Radio Practice (4 Questions)
One (1) question must be from the following:
181. How can you prevent the use of your amateur station by unauthorized
persons?
A. Install a carrier-operated relay in the main power line
B. Install a key-operated "ON/OFF" switch in the main power line
C. Post a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station
D. Install AC line fuses in the main power line
182. What is the purpose of a key-operated "ON/OFF" switch in the main power
line?
A. To prevent the use of your station by unauthorized persons
B. To provide an easy method for the FCC to put your station off the air
C. To prevent the power company from inadvertently turing off your
electricity during an emergency
D. As a safety feature, to kill all power to the station in the event
of an emergency
183. Why should all antenna and rotator cables be grounded when an amateur
station is not in use?
A. To lock the antenna system in one position
B. To avoid radio frequency interference
C. To save electricity
D. To protect the station and building from damage due to a nearby
lightning strike
184. How can an antenna system be protected from damage caused by a nearby
lightning strike?
A. Install a balun at the antenna feed point
B. Install an RF choke in the feed line
C. Ground all antennas when they are not in use
D. Install a line fuse in the antenna wire
185. How can amateur station equipment be protected from damage caused by
voltage induced in the power lines by a nearby lightning strike?
A. Use heavy insulation on the wiring
B. Keep the equipment on constantly
C. Disconnect the ground system
D. Disconnect all equipment after use, either by unplugging or by using
a main disconnect switch
186. For proper protection from lightning strikes, what equipment should be
grounded in an amateur station?
A. The power supply primary
B. All station equipment
C. The feed line center conductors
D. The AC power mains
187. What is a convenient indoor grounding point for an amateur station?
A. A metallic cold water pipe
B. PVC plumbing
C. A window screen
D. A natural gas pipe
188. To protect against electrical shock hazards, what should you connect the
chassis of each piece of your equipment to?
A. Insulated shock mounts
B. The antenna
C. A good ground connection
D. A circuit breaker
189. What type of material should a driven ground rod be made of?
A. Ceramic or other good insulator
B. Copper or copper-clad steel
C. Iron or steel
D. Fiberglass
190. What is the shortest ground rod you should consider installing for your
amateur station RF ground?
A. 4 foot
B. 6 foot
C. 8 foot
D. 10 foot
One (1) question must be from the following:
191. What precautions should you take when working with 1270-MHz waveguide?
A. Make sure that the RF leakage filters are installed at both ends of
the waveguide
B. Never look into the open end of a waveguide when RF is applied
C. Minimize the standing wave ratio before you test the waveguide
D. Never have both ends of the waveguide open at the same tiem when RF
is applied
192. What precautions should you take when you mount a UHF antenna in a
permanent location?
A. Make sure that no one can be near the antenna when you are
transmitting
B. Make sure that the RF field screens are in place
C. Make sure that the antenna is near the ground to maximize directional
effect
D. Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point
193. What precautions should you take before removing the shielding on a UHF
power amplifier?
A. Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna
B. Make sure the feed line is properly grounded
C. Make sure the amplifier cannot be accidentally energized
D. Make sure that the RF leakage filters are connected
194. Why should you use only good-quality, well-constructed coaxial cable and
connectors for a UHF antenna system?
A. To minimize RF leakage
B. To reduce parasitic oscillations
C. To maximize the directional characteristics of your antenna
D. To maximize the standing wave ratio of the antenna system
195. Why should you be careful to position the antenna of your 220-MHz hand-
held transceiver away from your head when you are transmitting?
A. To take advantage of the directional effect
B. To minimize RF exposure
C. To use your body to reflect the signal, improving the directional
characteristics of the antenna
D. To minimize static discharges
196. Which of the following types of radiation produce health risks most like
the risks produced by radio frequency radiation?
A. Microwave oven radiation and ultraviolet radiation
B. Microwave oven radiation and radiation from an electric space heater
C. Radiation from Uranium or Radium and ultraviolet radiation
D. Sunlight and radiation from an electric space heater
197. Why is there a switch that turns off the power to a high-voltage power
supply if the cabinet is opened?
A. To prevent RF from escaping from the supply
B. To prevent RF from entering the supply through the open cabinet
C. To provide a way to turn the power supply on and off
D. To reduce the danger of electrical shock
198. What purpose does a safety interlock on an amateur transmitter serve?
A. It reduces the danger that the operator will come in contact with
dangerous high voltages when the cabinet is opened while the power is on
B. It prevents the transmitter from being turned on accidentally
C. It prevents RF energy from leaking out of the transmitter cabinet
D. It provides a way for the station licensee to ensure that only
authorized operators can turn the transmitter on
199. What type of safety equipment should you wear when you are working at
the top of an antenna tower?
A. A grounding chain
B. A reflective vest
C. Loose clothing
D. A carefully inspected safety belt
200. Why should you wear a safety belt when you are working at the top of an
antenna tower?
A. To provide a way to safely hold your tools so they don't fall and
injure someone on the ground
B. To maintain a balanced load on the tower while you are working
C. To provide a way to safely bring tools up and down the tower
D. To prevent an accidental fall
201. For safety purposes, how high should you locate all portions of your
horizontal wire antenna?
A. High enough so that a person cannot touch them from the ground
B. Higher than chest level
C. Above knee level
D. Above electrical lines
202. What type of safety equipment should you wear when you are on the ground
assisting someone who is working on an antenna tower?
A. A reflective vest
B. A safety belt
C. A grounding chain
D. A hard hat
203. Why should you wear a hard hat when you are on the ground assisting
someone who is working on an antenna tower?
A. To avoid injury from tools dropped from the tower
B. To provide an RF shield during antenna testing
C. To avoid injury if the tower should accidentally collapse
D. To avoid injury from walking into tower guy wires
One (1) question must be from the following:
204. What accessory is used to measure standing wave ratio?
A. An ohm meter
B. An ammeter
C. An SWR meter
D. A current bridge
205. What instrument is used to indicate the relative impedance match between
a transmitter and antenna?
A. An ammeter
B. An ohmmeter
C. A voltmeter
D. An SWR meter
206. What does an SWR-meter reading of 1:1 indicate?
A. An antenna designed for use on another frequency band is probably
connected
B. An optimum impedance match has been attained
C. No power is being transferred to the antenna
D. An SWR meter never indicates 1:1 unless it is defective
207. What does an SWR meter reading of less than 1.5:1 indicate?
A. An unacceptably low reading
B. An unacceptably high reading
C. An acceptable impedance match
D. An antenna gain of 1.5
208. What does an SWR meter reading of 4:1 indicate?
A. An unacceptably low reading
B. An acceptable impedance match
C. An antenna gain of 4
D. An impedance mismatch, which is not acceptable; it indicates problems
with the antenna system
209. What does an SWR-meter reading of 5:1 indicate?
A. The antenna will make a 10-watt signal as strong as a 50-watt signal
B. Maximum power is being delivered to the antenna
C. An unacceptable mismatch is indicated
D. A very desirable impedance match has been attained
210. What kind of SWR meter reading may indicate poor electrical contact
between parts of an antenna system?
A. An erratic reading
B. An unusually low reading
C. No reading at all
D. A negative reading
211. What does an unusually high SWR meter reading indicate?
A. That the antenna is not the correct length, or that there is an open
or shorted connection somewhere in the feed line
B. That the signals arriving at the antenna are unusually strong,
indicating good radio conditions
C. That the transmitter is producing more power than normal, probably
indicating that the final amplifier tubes or transistors are about to go bad
D. That there is an unusually large amount of solar white-noise
radiation, indicating very poor radio conditions
212. The SWR meter reading at the low-frequency end of an amateur band is
2.5:1, and the SWR meter reading at the high-frequency end of the same band
is 5:1. What does this indicate about your antenna?
A. The antenna is broadbanded
B. The antenna is too long for operation on this band
C. The antenna is too short for operation on this band
D. The antenna has been optimized for operation on this band
213. The SWR meter reading at the low-frequency end of an amateur band is
5:1, and the SWR meter reading at the high-frequency end of the same band is
2.5:1. What does this indicate about your antenna?
A. The antenna is broadbanded
B. The antenna is too long for operation on this band
C. The antenna is too short for operation on this band
D. The antenna has been optimized for operation on this band
One (1) question must be from the following:
214. What is meant by receiver overload?
A. Interference caused by transmitter harmonics
B. Interference caused by overcrowded band conditions
C. Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby transmitter
D. Interference caused by turning the receiver volume too high
215. What is a likely indication that radio-frequency interference to a
receiver is caused by front-end overload?
A. A low pass filter at the transmitter reduces interference sharply
B. The interference is independent of frequency
C. A high pass filter at the receiver reduces interference little or not
at all
D. Grounding the receiver makes the problem worse
216. Your neighbor reports interference to his television whenever you are
transmitting from your amateur station. This interference occurs regardless
of your transmitter frequency. What is likely to be the cause of the
interference?
A. Inadequate transmitter harmonic suppression
B. Receiver VR tube discharge
C. Receiver overload
D. Incorrect antenna length
217. What type of filter should be installed on a TV receiver as the first
step in preventing RF overload from an amateur HF station transmission?
A. Low pass
B. High pass
C. Band pass
D. Notch
218. What is meant by harmonic radiation?
A. Transmission of signals at whole number multiples of the fundamental
(desired) frequency
B. Transmission of signals that include a superimposed 60-Hz hum
C. Transmission of signals caused by sympathetic vibrations from a
nearby transmitter
D. Transmission of signals to produce a stimulated emission in the air
to enhance skip propagation
219. Why is harmonic radiation from an amateur station undesirable?
A. It will cause interference to other stations and may result in out-
of-band signal radiation
B. It uses large amounts of electric power
C. It will cause sympathetic vibrations in nearby transmitters
D. It will produce stimulated emission in the air above the transmitter,
thus causing aurora
220. What type of interference may radiate from a multi-band antenna
connected to an improperly tuned transmitter?
A. Harmonic radiation
B. Auroral distortion
C. Parasitic excitation
D. Intermodulation
221. What is the purpose of shielding in a transmitter?
A. It gives the low pass filter structural stability
B. It enhances the microphonic tendencies of radiotelephone transmitters
C. It prevents unwanted RF radiation
D. It helps maintain a sufficiently high operating temperature in
circuit components
222. Your neighbor reports interference on one or two channels of her
television when you are transmitting from your amateur station. This
interference only occurs when you are operating on 15 meters. What is likely
to be the cause of the interference?
A. Excessive low-pass filtering on the transmitter
B. Sporadic E de-ionization near your neighbor's TV antenna
C. TV Receiver front-end overload
D. Harmonic radiation from your transmitter
223. What type of filter should be installed on an amateur transmitter as the
first step in reducing harmonic radiation?
A. Key click filter
B. Low pass filter
C. High pass filter
D. CW filter
224. If you are notified that your amateur station is causing television
interference, what should you do first?
A. Make sure that your amateur equipment is operating properly, and that
it does not cause interference to your own television
B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC
office for assistance
C. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter output and a low-pass
filter at the antenna-input terminals of the TV
D. Continue operating normally, since you have no legal obligation to
reduce or eliminate the interference
225. Your neighbor informs you that you are causing television interference,
but you are sure your amateur equipment is operating properly and you cause
no interference to your own TV. What should you do?
A. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC
office for assistance
B. Work with your neighbor to determine that you are actually the cause
of the interference
C. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter output and a low-pass
filter at the antenna-input terminals of the TV
D. Continue operating normally, since you have no legal obligation to
reduce or eliminate the interference
SUBELEMENT 2E - Electrical Principles (4 questions)
One (1) question must be from the following:
226. Your receiver dial is calibrated in megahertz and shows a signal at 1200
MHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in gigahertz show the signal?
A. 1,200,000 GHz
B. 12 GHz
C. 1.2 GHz
D. 0.0012 GHz
227. Your receiver dial is calibrated in kilohertz and shows a signal at 7125
kHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in megahertz show the signal?
A. 0.007125 MHz
B. 7.125 MHz
C. 71.25 MHz
D. 7,125,000 MHz
228. Your receiver dial is calibrated in gigahertz and shows a signal at 1.2
GHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in megahertz show the same
signal?
A. 1.2 MHz
B. 12 MHz
C. 120 MHz
D. 1200 MHz
229. Your receiver dial is calibrated in megahertz and shows a signal at
3.525 MHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in kilohertz show the
signal?
A. 0.003525 kHz
B. 3525 kHz
C. 35.25 kHz
D. 3,525,000 kHz
230. Your receiver dial is calibrated in kilohertz and shows a signal at 3725
kHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in Hertz show the same
signal?
A. 3,725 Hz
B. 3.725 Hz
C. 37.25 Hz
D. 3,725,000 Hz
231. How long (in meters) is an antenna that is 400 centimeters long?
A. 0.0004 meters
B. 4 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 40,000 meters
232. What reading will be displayed on a meter calibrated in amperes when it
is being used to measure a 3000-milliampere current?
A. 0.003 amperes
B. 0.3 amperes
C. 3 amperes
D. 3,000,000 amperes
233. What reading will be displayed on a meter calibrated in volts when it
is being used to measure a 3500-millivolt potential?
A. 350 volts
B. 35 volts
C. 3.5 volts
D. .35 volts
234. How many farads is 500,000 microfarads?
A. 0.0005 farads
B. 0.5 farads
C. 500 farads
D. 500,000,000 farads
235. How many microfarads is 1,000,000 picofarads?
A. 0.001 microfarads
B. 1 microfarad
C. 1,000 microfarads
D. 1,000,000,000 microfarads
One (1) question must be from the following:
236. What is the term used to describe the flow of electrons in an electric
circuit?
A. Voltage
B. Resistance
C. Capacitance
D. Current
237. What is the basic unit of electric current?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm
238. What supplies the force that will cause electrons to flow through a
circuit?
A. Electromotive force, or voltage
B. Magnetomotive force, or inductance
C. Farad force, or capacitance
D. Thermodynamic force, or entropy
239. The pressure in a water pipe is comparable to what force in an
electrical circuit?
A. Current
B. Resistance
C. Gravitation
D. Voltage
240. An electric circuit must connect to two terminals of a voltage source.
What are these two terminals called?
A. The north and south poles
B. The positive and neutral terminals
C. The positive and negative terminals
D. The entrance and exit terminals
241. What is the basic unit of voltage?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm
242. List at least three good electrical conductors.
A. Copper, gold, mica
B. Gold, silver, wood
C. Gold, silver, aluminum
D. Copper, aluminum, paper
243. List at least four good electrical insulators.
A. Glass, air, plastic, porcelain
B. Glass, wood, copper, porcelain
C. Paper, glass, air, aluminum
D. Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon
244. There is a limit to the electric current that can pass through any
material. What is this current limiting called?
A. Fusing
B. Reactance
C. Saturation
D. Resistance
245. What is an electrical component called that opposes electron movement
through a circuit?
A. A resistor
B. A reactor
C. A fuse
D. An oersted
246. What is the basic unit of resistance?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm
One (1) question must be from the following:
247. What electrical principle relates voltage, current and resistance in an
electric circuit?
A. Ampere's Law
B. Kirchhoff's Law
C. Ohm's Law
D. Tesla's Law
248. There is a 2-amp current through a 50-ohm resistor. What is the applied
voltage?
A. 0.04 volts
B. 52 volts
C. 100 volts
D. 200 volts
249. If 200 volts is applied to a 100-ohm resistor, what is the current
through the resistor?
A. 0.5 amps
B. 2 amps
C. 50 amps
D. 20000 amps
250. There is a 3-amp current through a resistor and we know that the applied
voltage is 90 volts. What is the value of the resistor?
A. 0.03 ohms
B. 10 ohms
C. 30 ohms
D. 2700 ohms
251. What is the term used to describe the ability to do work?
A. Voltage
B. Power
C. Inertia
D. Energy
252. What is converted to heat and light in an electric light bulb?
A. Electrical energy
B. Electrical voltage
C. Electrical power
D. Electrical current
253. What term is used to describe the rate of energy consumption?
A. Energy
B. Current
C. Power
D. Voltage
254. You have two lamps with different wattage light bulbs in them. How can
you determine which bulb uses electrical energy faster?
A. The bulb that operates from the higher voltage will consume energy
faster
B. The physically larger bulb will consume energy faster
C. The bulb with the higher wattage rating will consume energy faster
D. The bulb with the lower wattage rating will consume energy faster
255. What is the basic unit of electrical power?
A. Ohm
B. Watt
C. Volt
D. Ampere
256. What is the term for an electrical circuit in which there can be no
current?
A. A closed circuit
B. A short circuit
C. An open circuit
D. A hyper circuit
257. What is the term for a failure in an electrical circuit that causes
excessively high current?
A. An open circuit
B. A dead circuit
C. A closed circuit
D. A short circuit
One (1) question must be from the following:
258. What is the term used to describe a current that flows only in one
direction?
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Periodic current
D. Pulsating current
259. What is the term used to describe a current that flows first in one
direction, then in the opposite direction, over and over?
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Negative current
D. Positive current
260. What is the term for the number of complete cycles of an alternating
waveform that occur in one second?
A. Pulse repetition rate
B. Hertz
C. Frequency per wavelength
D. Frequency
261. A certain AC signal makes 2000 complete cycles in one second. What
property of the signal does this number describe?
A. The frequency of the signal
B. The pulse repetition rate of the signal
C. The wavelength of the signal
D. The hertz per second of the signal
262. What is the basic unit of frequency?
A. The hertz
B. The cycle
C. The kilohertz
D. The megahertz
263. What range of frequencies are usually called audio frequencies?
A. 0 to 20 Hz
B. 20 to 20,000 Hz
C. 200 to 200,000 Hz
D. 10,000 to 30,000 Hz
264. A signal at 725 Hz is in what frequency range?
A. Audio frequency
B. Intermediate frequency
C. Microwave frequency
D. Radio Frequency
265. Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz audio
frequencies?
A. Because the human ear rejects signals in this frequency range
B. Because the human ear responds to sounds in this frequency range
C. Because frequencies in this range are too low for a radio to detect
D. Because a radio converts signals in this range directly to sounds the
human ear responds to
266. Signals above what frequency are usually called radio-frequency signals?
A. 20 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 20,000 Hz
D. 1,000,000 Hz
267. A signal at 7125 kHz is in what frequency range?
A. Audio frequency
B. Radio frequency
C. Hyper-frequency
D. Super-high frequency
268. What is the term for the distance an AC signal travels during one
complete cycle?
A. Wave velocity
B. Velocity factor
C. Wavelength
D. Wavelength per meter
269. In the time it takes a certain radio signal to pass your antenna, the
leading edge of the wave travels 12 meters. What property of the signal does
this number refer to?
A. The signal frequency
B. The wave velocity
C. The velocity factor
D. The signal wavelength
SUBELEMENT 2F - Circuit Components (2 Questions)
One (1) question must be from the following:
270. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a resistor?
(Please refer to Diagram 2F-1.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
271. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a variable
resistor or potentiometer? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-1.2)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
272. In diagram 2F-1, which component is a resistor?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
273. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a single-
pole, single-throw switch? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-2.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
274. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a single-
pole, double-throw switch? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-2.2)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
275. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a double-
pole, double-throw switch? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-2.3)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
276. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a 5-pole
rotary switch? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-2.4)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
277. In diagram 2F-2, which component is a switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
278. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a fuse?
(Please refer to Diagram 2F-3.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
279. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a single-
cell battery? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-4.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
280. What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent a multiple-
cell battery? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-4.2)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
One (1) question must be from the following:
281. What is the symbol normally used to represent an earth-ground connection
on schematic diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-5.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
282. What is the symbol normally used to represent a chassis-ground
connection on schematic diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-5.2)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
283. In diagram 2F-5, which symbol represents a chassis ground connection?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
284. In diagram 2F-5, which symbol represents an earth ground connection?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
285. What is the symbol used to represent an antenna on schematic diagrams?
(Please refer to Diagram 2F-6.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
286. What is the symbol used to represent an NPN bipolar transistor on
schematic diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-7.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
287. What is the symbol used to represent a PNP bipolar transistor on
schematic diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-7.2)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
288. In diagram 2F-7, which symbol represents a PNP bipolar transistor?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
289. In diagram 2F-7, which symbol represents an NPN bipolar transistor?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
290. What is the symbol used to represent a triode vacuum tube on schematic
diagrams? (Please refer to Diagram 2F-8.1)
A. Symbol A
B. Symbol B
C. Symbol C
D. Symbol D
SUBELEMENT 2G - Practical Circuits (2 Questions)
One (1) question must be from the following:
291. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 2G-1-1.1)
A. A terminal-node controller
B. An antenna switch
C. A telegraph key
D. A TR switch
292. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 2G-1-1.2)
A. A microphone
B. A receiver
C. A transmitter
D. An SWR meter
293. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 2G-1-1.3)
A. A key click filter
B. An antenna tuner
C. A power supply
D. A receiver
294. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 2G-1-1.4)
A. A transceiver
B. A TR switch
C. An antenna tuner
D. A modem
295. In block diagram 2G-1, which symbol represents an antenna?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
296. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 2G-1-2.1)
A. A pi network
B. An antenna switch
C. A key click filter
D. A mixer
297. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 2G-1-2.2)
A. A TR switch
B. A variable frequency oscillator
C. A linear amplifier
D. A microphone
298. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 2G-1-2.3)
A. An antenna switch
B. An impedance-matching network
C. A key click filter
D. A terminal-node controller
299. In block diagram 2G-1, if component 1 is a transceiver and component 2
is an SWR meter, what is component 3?
A. A power supply
B. A receiver
C. A microphone
D. An impedance matching device
300. In block diagram 2G-1, if component 2 is an SWR meter and component 3
is an impedance matching device, what is component 1?
A. A power supply
B. An antenna
C. An antenna switch
D. A transceiver
One (1) question must be from the following:
301. In an Amateur Radio station designed for Morse radiotelegraph operation,
what station accessory will you need to go with your transmitter?
A. A terminal-node controller
B. A telegraph key
C. An SWR meter
D. An antenna switch
302. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram of a Morse telegraphy
station? (Please refer to Diagram 2G-2.2)
A. A sidetone oscillator
B. A microphone
C. A telegraph key
D. A DTMF keypad
303. What station accessory do many amateurs use to help form good Morse code
characters?
A. A sidetone oscillator
B. A key-click filter
C. An electronic keyer
D. A DTMF keypad
304. In an Amateur Radio station designed for radiotelephone operation, what
station accessory will you need to go with your transmitter?
A. A splatter filter
B. A terminal-voice controller
C. A receiver audio filter
D. A microphone
305. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram of a radiotelephone
station? (Please refer to Diagram 2G-3.2)
A. A splatter filter
B. A terminal-voice controller
C. A receiver audio filter
D. A microphone
306. In an Amateur Radio station designed for radioteletype operation, what
station accessories will you need to go with your transmitter?
A. A modem and a teleprinter or computer system
B. A computer, a printer and a RTTY refresh unit
C. A terminal-node controller
D. A modem, a monitor and a DTMF keypad
307. What is the unlabled block (?) in this diagram? (Please refer to
Diagram 2G-4.2)
A. An RS-232 interface
B. SWR bridge
C. Modem
D. Terminal-network controller
308. In a packet-radio station, what device connects between the radio
transceiver and the computer terminal?
A. A terminal-node controller
B. An RS-232 interface
C. A terminal refresh unit
D. A tactical network control system
309. What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram of a packet-radio
station? (Please refer to Diagram 2G-5.2)
A. A terminal-node controller
B. An RS-232 interface
C. A terminal refresh unit
D. A tactical network control system
310. Where does a terminal-node controller connect in an amateur packet-
radio station?
A. Between the antenna and the radio
B. Between the computer and the monitor
C. Between the computer or terminal and the radio
D. Between the keyboard and the computer
SUBELEMENT 2H - Signals and Emissions (2 Questions)
One (1) question must be from the following:
311. What keying method is used to transmit A1A radiotelegraph messages?
A. Frequency-shift keying of a radio-frequency signal
B. On/off keying of a radio-frequency signal
C. Audio-frequency-shift keying of an oscillator tone
D. On/off keying of an audio-frequency signal
312. What emission designator describes the on/off keying of a radio-
frequency signal to produce Morse code messages?
A. F1B
B. F2B
C. A1A
D. J3E
313. What emission designator describes the use of frequency-shift keying to
transmit radioteletype messages?
A. F1B
B. F2B
C. A1A
D. J3E
314. What keying method is used to transmit F1B radioteletype messages?
A. Frequency-shift keying of a radio-frequency signal
B. On/off keying of a radio-frequency signal
C. Audio-frequency-shift keying of an oscillator tone
D. On/off keying of an audio-frequency signal
315. What emission designator describes frequency-modulated voice
transmissions?
A. F3E
B. F2B
C. A1A
D. J3E
316. What emission designator describes single-sideband suppressed-carrier
(SSB) voice transmissions?
A. F3E
B. F2B
C. A1A
D. J3E
317. What does the term key click mean?
A. The mechanical noise caused by a closing a straight key too hard
B. The clicking noise from an excessively square CW keyed waveform
C. The sound produced in a receiver from a CW signal faster than 20 WPM
D. The sound of a CW signal being copied on an AM receiver
318. How can key clicks be eliminated?
A. By reducing your keying speed to less than 20 WPM
B. By increasing power to the maximum allowable level
C. By using a power supply with better regulation
D. By using a key-click filter
319. What does the term chirp mean?
A. A distortion in the receiver audio circuits
B. A high-pitched audio tone transmitted with a CW signal
C. A slight shift in oscillator frequency each time a CW transmitter is
keyed
D. A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up
320. What can be done to the power supply of a CW transmitter to avoid chirp?
A. Resonate the power supply filters
B. Regulate the power supply output voltages
C. Use a buffer amplifier between the transmitter output and the feed
line
D. Hold the power supply current to a fixed value
321. What is a common cause of superimposed hum?
A. Using a nonresonant random-wire antenna
B. Sympathetic vibrations from a nearby transmitter
C. Improper neutralization of the transmitter output stage
D. A defective filter capacitor in the power supply
322. What type of problem can a bad power-supply filter capacitor cause in
a transmitter or receiver?
A. Sympathetic vibrations in nearby receivers
B. A superimposed hum or buzzing sound
C. Extreme changes in antenna resonance
D. Imbalance in the mixers
One (1) question must be from the following:
323. What is the 4th harmonic of a 7160-kHz signal?
A. 28,640 kHz
B. 35,800 kHz
C. 28,160 kHz
D. 1790 kHz
324. You receive an FCC Notice of Violation stating that your station was
heard on 21,375 kHz. At the time listed on the notice, you were operating
on 7125 kHz. What is a possible cause of this violation?
A. Your transmitter has a defective power-supply filter capacitor
B. Your CW keying speed was excessively fast
C. Your transmitter was radiating excess harmonic signals
D. Your transmitter has a defective power-supply filter choke
325. What may happen to body tissues that are exposed to large amounts of UHF
or microwave RF energy?
A. The tissue may be damaged because of the heat produced
B. The tissue may suddenly be frozen
C. The tissue may be immediately destroyed because of the Maxwell Effect
D. The tissue may become less resistant to cosmic radiation
326. What precaution should you take before working near a high-gain UHF or
microwave antenna (such as a parabolic, or dish antenna)?
A. Be certain the antenna is FCC type accepted
B. Be certain the antenna and transmitter are properly grounded
C. Be certain the transmitter cannot be operated
D. Be certain the antenna safety interlocks are in place
327. You are installing a VHF or UHF mobile radio in your vehicle. What is
the best location to mount the antenna on the vehicle to minimize any danger
from RF exposure to the driver or passengers?
A. In the middle of the roof
B. Along the top of the windshield
C. On either front fender
D. On the trunk lid
328. You discover that your tube-type transmitter poweramplifier is radiating
spurious emissions. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Excessively fast keying speed
B. Undermodulation
C. Improper neutralization
D. Tank-circuit current dip at resonance
329. Your transmitter radiates signals outside the amateur band where you are
transmitting. What term describes this radiation?
A. Off-frequency emissions
B. Transmitter chirp
C. Incidental radiation
D. Spurious emissions
330. What problem can occur if you operate your transmitter without the cover
and other shielding in place?
A. Your transmitter can radiate spurious emissions
B. Your transmitter may radiate a "chirpy" signal
C. The final amplifier efficiency of your transmitter may decrease
D. You may cause splatter interference to other stations operating on
nearby frequencies
331. What type of interference will you cause if you operate your SSB
transmitter with the microphone gain adjusted too high?
A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in your
neighborhood
B. You may cause splatter interference to other stations operating on
nearby frequencies
C. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around your antenna
D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor in your
rig
332. What may happen if you adjust the microphone gain or deviation control
on your FM transmitter too high?
A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in your
neighborhood
B. You may cause interference to other stations operating on nearby
frequencies
C. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around your antenna
D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor in your
rig
333. What type of interference can excessive amounts of speech processing in
your SSB transmitter cause?
A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in your
neighborhood
B. You may cause splatter interference to other stations operating on
nearby frequencies
C. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around your antenna
D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor in your
rig
SUBELEMENT 2I - Antennas and Feed Lines (3 Questions)
One (1) question must be from the following:
334. What is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-wavelength dipole
antenna for 3725 kHz?
A. 126 ft
B. 81 ft
C. 63 ft
D. 40 ft
335. What is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-wavelength dipole
antenna for 7125 kHz?
A. 84 ft
B. 42 ft
C. 33 ft
D. 66 ft
336. What is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-wavelength dipole
antenna for 21,125 kHz?
A. 44 ft
B. 28 ft
C. 22 ft
D. 14 ft
337. What is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-wavelength dipole
antenna for 28,150 kHz?
A. 22 ft
B. 11 ft
C. 17 ft
D. 34 ft
338. How is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-wavelength dipole
antenna calculated?
A. By substituting the desired operating frequency for f in the formula:
150 / f (in MHz)
B. By substituting the desired operating frequency for f in the formula:
234 / f (in MHz)
C. By substituting the desired operating frequency for f in the formula:
300 / f (in MHz)
D. By substituting the desired operating frequency for f in the formula:
468 / f (in MHz)
339. What is the approximate length (in feet) of a quarter-wavelength
vertical antenna for 3725 kHz?
A. 20 ft
B. 32 ft
C. 40 ft
D. 63 ft
340. What is the approximate length (in feet) of a quarter-wavelength
vertical antenna for 7125 kHz?
A. 11 ft
B. 16 ft
C. 21 ft
D. 33 ft
341. What is the approximate length (in feet) of a quarter-wavelength
vertical antenna for 21,125 kHz?
A. 7 ft
B. 11 ft
C. 14 ft
D. 22 ft
342. What is the approximate length (in feet) of a quarter-wavelength
vertical antenna for 28,150 kHz?
A. 5 ft
B. 8 ft
C. 11 ft
D. 17 ft
343. When a vertical antenna is lengthened, what happens to its resonant
frequency?
A. It decreases
B. It increases
C. It stays the same
D. It doubles
344. Why do many amateurs use a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna rather than
a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for their VHF or UHF mobile stations?
A. A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power than a 1/4-wavelength
antenna
B. A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain than a 1/4-wavelength antenna
C. A 5/8-wavelength antenna exhibits less corona loss than a 1/4-
wavelength antenna
D. A 5/8-wavelength antenna looks more like a CB antenna, so it does not
attract as much attention as a 1/4-wavelength antenna
345. What type of radiation pattern is produced by a 5/8-wavelength vertical
antenna?
A. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated in two
opposite directions
B. A pattern with the transmitted signal going equally in all compass
directions, with most of the radiation going high above the horizon
C. A pattern with the transmitted signal going equally in all compass
directions, with most of the radiation going close to the horizon
D. A pattern with more of the transmitted signal concentrated in one
direction than in other directions
One (1) question must be from the following:
346. What type of antenna produces a radiation pattern with more of the
transmitted signal concentrated in a particular direction than in other
directions?
A. A dipole antenna
B. A vertical antenna
C. An isotropic antenna
D. A beam antenna
347. What type of radiation pattern is produced by a Yagi antenna?
A. A pattern with the transmitted signal spread out equally in all
compass directions
B. A pattern with more of the transmitted signal concentrated in one
direction than in other directions
C. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated in two
opposite directions
D. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated at high
radiation angles
348. Approximately how long (in wavelengths) is the driven element of a Yagi
antenna?
A. 1/4 wavelength
B. 1/3 wavelength
C. 1/2 wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
349. On the Yagi antenna shown in Figure 2I-4, what is the name of section
B?
A. Director
B. Reflector
C. Boom
D. Driven element
350. On the Yagi antenna shown in Figure 2I-4, what is the name of section
C?
A. Director
B. Reflector
C. Boom
D. Driven element
351. On the Yagi antenna shown in Figure 2I-4, what is the name of section
A?
A. Director
B. Reflector
C. Boom
D. Driven element
352. What are the names of the elements in a 3-element Yagi antenna?
A. Reflector, driven element and director
B. Boom, mast and reflector
C. Reflector, base and radiator
D. Driven element, trap and feed line
353. How should the antenna on a hand-held transceiver be positioned while
you are transmitting?
A. Away from your head and away from others standing nearby
B. Pointed in the general direction of the repeater or other station you
are transmitting to
C. Pointed in a general direction 90 degrees away from the repeater or
other station you are transmitting to
D. With the top of the antenna angled down slightly to take the most
advantage of ground reflections
354. Why should you always locate your antennas so that no one can come in
contact with them while you are transmitting?
A. Such contact can detune the antenna, causing television interference
B. To prevent RF burns and excessive exposure to RF energy
C. The antenna is more likely to radiate harmonics when it is touched
D. Such contact may reflect the transmitted signal back to the
transmitter, damaging the final amplifier
355. You are going to purchase a new antenna for your VHF or UHF hand-held
radio. Which type of antenna is the best choice to produce a radiation
pattern that will be least hazardous to your face and eyes?
A. A 1/8-wavelength whip
B. A 7/8-wavelength whip
C. A 1/2-wavelength whip
D. A short, helically wound, flexible antenna
One (1) question must be from the following:
356. What is a coaxial cable?
A. Two parallel conductors encased along the edges of a flat plastic
ribbon
B. Two parallel conductors held at a fixed distance from each other by
insulating rods
C. Two conductors twisted around each other in a double spiral
D. A center conductor encased in insulating material which is covered
by a conducting sleeve or shield
357. What kind of antenna feed line is constructed of a center conductor
encased in insulation which is then covered by an outer conducting shield and
weatherproof jacket?
A. Twin lead
B. Coaxial cable
C. Open-wire feed line
D. Wave guide
358. What are some advantages of using coaxial cable as an antenna feed line?
A. It is easy to make at home, and it has a characteristic impedance in
the range of most common amateur antennas
B. It is weatherproof, and it has a characteristic impedance in the
range of most common amateur antennas
C. It can be operated at a higher SWR than twin lead, and it is
weatherproof
D. It is unaffected by nearby metallic objects, and has a characteristic
impedance that is higher than twin lead
359. What commonly-available antenna feed line can be buried directly in the
ground for some distance without adverse effects?
A. Twin lead
B. Coaxial cable
C. Parallel conductor
D. Twisted pair
360. When an antenna feed line must be located near grounded metal objects,
which commonly-available feed line should be used?
A. Twisted pair
B. Twin lead
C. Coaxial cable
D. Ladder-line
361. What is parallel-conductor feed line?
A. Two conductors twisted around each other in a double spiral
B. Two parallel conductors held a uniform distance apart by insulating
material
C. A conductor encased in insulating material which is then covered by
a conducting shield and a weatherproof jacket
D. A metallic pipe whose diameter is equal to or slightly greater than
the wavelength of the signal being carried
362. How can TV-type twin lead be used as a feed line?
A. By carefully running the feed line parallel to a metal post to ensure
self resonance
B. TV-type twin lead cannot be used in an Amateur Radio station
C. By installing an impedance-matching network between the transmitter
and feed line
D. By using a high-power amplifier and installing a power attenuator
between the transmitter and feed line
363. What are some advantages of using parallel-conductor feed line?
A. It has a lower characteristic impedance than coaxial cable, and will
operate at a higher SWR than coaxial cable
B. It will operate at a higher SWR than coaxial cable, and it is
unaffected by nearby metal objects
C. It has a lower characteristic impedance than coaxial cable, and has
less loss than coaxial cable
D. It will operate at higher SWR than coaxial cable and it has less loss
than coaxial cable
364. What are some disadvantages of using parallel-conductor feed line?
A. It is affected by nearby metallic objects, and it has a
characteristic impedance that is too high for direct connection to most
amateur transmitters
B. It is more difficult to make at home than coaxial cable and it cannot
be operated at a high SWR
C. It is affected by nearby metallic objects, and it cannot handle the
power output of a typical amateur transmitter
D. It has a characteristic impedance that is too high for direct
connection to most amateur transmitters, and it will operate at a high SWR
365. What kind of antenna feed line is constructed of two conductors
maintained a uniform distance apart by insulated spreaders?
A. Coaxial cable
B. Ladder-line open conductor line
C. Twin lead in a plastic ribbon
D. Twisted pair
366. A certain antenna has a feed-point impedance of 35 ohms. You want to
use a 50-ohm-impedance coaxial cable to feed this antenna. What type of
device will you need to connect between the antenna and the feed line?
A. A balun
B. An SWR bridge
C. An impedance matching device
D. A low-pass filter
367. A certain antenna system has an impedance of 1000 ohms on one band.
What must you use to connect this antenna system to the 50-ohm output on your
transmitter?
A. A balun
B. An SWR bridge
C. An impedance matching device
D. A low-pass filter
368. The word balun is a contraction for what phrase?
A. Balanced-antenna-lobe use network
B. Broadband-amplifier linearly unregulated
C. Balanced unmodulator
D. Balanced to unbalanced
369. Where would you install a balun if you wanted to feed your dipole
antenna with 75-ohm parallel-conductor feed line?
A. At the transmitter end of the feed line
B. At the antenna feed point
C. In only one conductor of the feed line
D. From one conductor of the feed line to ground
370. Where might you install a balun if you wanted to feed your dipole
antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
A. You might install a balun at the antenna feed point
B. You might install a balun at the transmitter output
C. You might install a balun 1/2 wavelength from the transmitter
D. You might install baluns in the middle of each side of the dipole
371. A four-element Yagi antenna is mounted with its elements parallel to the
ground. A signal produced by this antenna will have what type of
polarization?
A. Broadside polarization
B. Circular polarization
C. Horizontal polarization
D. Vertical polarization
372. A four-element Yagi antenna is mounted with its elements perpendicular
to the ground. A signal produced by this antenna will have what type of
polarization?
A. Broadside polarization
B. Circular polarization
C. Horizontal polarization
D. Vertical polarization
1. A (2A-1.1)
2. D (2A-1.2)
3. D (2A-1.3)
4. B (2A-1.4)
5. C (2A-2.1)
6. A (2A-2.2)
7. A (2A-3.1)
8. D (2A-3.2)
9. B (2A-4.1)
10. D (2A-4.2)
11. C (2A-5.1)
12. B (2A-5.2)
13. B (2A-6.1)
14. C (2A-6.2)
15. D (2A-7.1)
16. A (2A-8.1)
17. D (2A-8.2)
18. D (2A-9.1)
19. A (2A-9.2)
20. B (2A-9.3)
21. B (2A-10.1)
22. C (2A-10.2)
23. A (2A-10.3)
24. C (2A-10.4)
25. B (2A-10.5)
26. C (2A-10.6)
27. A (2A-10.7)
28. B (2A-10.8)
29. C (2A-10.9)
30. D (2A-10.10)
31. A (2A-11.1)
32. B (2A-11.2)
33. C (2A-12.1)
34. A (2A-12.2)
35. D (2A-12.3)
36. A (2A-13.1)
37. B (2A-14.1)
38. C (2A-15.1)
39. D (2A-15.2)
40. A (2A-15.3)
41. B (2A-15.4)
42. D (2A-15.5)
43. A (2A-16.1)
44. A (2A-17.1)
45. A (2A-17.2)
46. A (2A-17.3)
47. A (2A-17.4)
48. D (2A-17.5)
49. D (2A-17.6)
50. D (2A-17.7)
51. C (2A-17.8)
52. C (2A-17.9)
53. D (2A-17.10)
54. D (2A-17.11)
55. D (2A-17.12)
56. C (2A-17.13)
57. D (2A-18.1)
58. C (2A-18.2)
59. C (2A-18.3)
60. C (2A-18.4)
61. C (2A-18.5)
62. C (2A-19.1)
63. B (2A-19.2)
64. C (2A-19.3)
65. D (2A-19.4)
66. B (2A-19.5)
67. C (2A-20.1)
68. C (2A-20.2)
69. D (2A-20.3)
70. C (2A-21.1)
71. A (2A-21.2)
72. D (2A-21.3)
73. B (2A-21.4)
74. C (2A-22.1)
75. A (2A-22.2)
76. B (2A-23.1)
77. B (2A-24.1)
78. C (2A-25.1)
79. D (2A-26.1)
80. C (2A-27.1)
81. B (2A-27.2)
82. B (2A-27.3)
83. A (2A-27.4)
84. B (2A-27.5)
85. C (2A-27.6)
86. B (2A-27.7)
87. D (2A-28.1)
88. C (2A-28.2)
89. B (2A-29.1)
90. D (2A-29.2)
91. A (2A-30.1)
92. B (2A-30.2)
93. D (2A-30.3)
94. D (2A-31.1)
95. A (2A-32.1)
96. D (2A-32.2)
97. A (2A-33.1)
98. A (2A-34.1)
99. B (2A-34.2)
100. D (2A-34.3)
101. A (2A-35.1)
102. C (2A-36.1)
103. D (2A-36.2)
104. A (2A-37.1)
105. C (2A-37.2)
106. C (2A-38.1)
107. D (2A-38.2)
108. A (2A-38.3)
109. C (2A-39.1)
110. B (2A-39.2)
111. B (2A-39.3)
112. C (2A-40.1)
113. D (2A-40.2)
114. D (2A-40.3)
115. A (2B-1-1.1)
116. C (2B-1-1.2)
117. C (2B-1-1.3)
118. D (2B-1-2.1)
119. A (2B-2-1.1)
120. B (2B-2-1.2)
121. C (2B-2-2.1)
122. C (2B-2-3.1)
123. D (2B-2-3.2)
124. A (2B-2-3.3)
125. B (2B-2-3.4)
126. C (2B-2-3.5)
127. D (2B-2-4.1)
128. A (2B-2-4.2)
129. A (2B-2-4.3)
130. D (2B-2-5.1)
131. B (2B-2-5.2)
132. A (2B-2-5.3)
133. B (2B-2-6.1)
134. C (2B-2-6.2)
135. D (2B-2-6.3)
136. A (2B-2-6.4)
137. B (2B-2-6.5)
138. C (2B-3-1.1)
139. D (2B-3-1.2)
140. A (2B-3-2.1)
141. C (2B-3-2.2)
142. A (2B-3-2.3)
143. D (2B-3-2.4)
144. A (2B-3-2.5)
145. C (2B-3-2.6)
146. A (2B-3-2.7)
147. D (2B-3-2.8)
148. B (2B-3-2.9)
149. A (2B-3-2.10)
150. C (2B-3-2.11)
151. B (2B-4-1.1)
152. B (2B-4-2.1)
153. C (2B-5-1.1)
154. D (2B-5-1.2)
155. A (2B-5-2.1)
156. B (2B-5-2.2)
157. C (2B-6-1.1)
158. D (2B-6-2.1)
159. A (2B-6-3.1)
160. B (2B-6-4.1)
161. C (2B-6-5.1)
162. D (2B-6-5.2)
163. A (2C-1.1)
164. B (2C-1.2)
165. D (2C-2.1)
166. B (2C-2.2)
167. B (2C-2.3)
168. A (2C-2.4)
169. A (2C-3.1)
170. B (2C-3.2)
171. D (2C-3.3)
172. A (2C-3.4)
173. C (2C-3.5)
174. D (2C-3.6)
175. C (2C-4.1)
176. D (2C-4.2)
177. A (2C-5.1)
178. B (2C-5.2)
179. C (2C-6.1)
180. C (2C-6.2)
181. B (2D-1.1)
182. A (2D-1.2)
183. D (2D-2.1)
184. C (2D-2.2)
185. D (2D-2.3)
186. B (2D-2.4)
187. A (2D-3.1)
188. C (2D-3.2)
189. B (2D-3.3)
190. C (2D-3.4)
191. B (2D-4.1)
192. A (2D-4.2)
193. C (2D-4.3)
194. A (2D-4.4)
195. B (2D-4.5)
196. B (2D-4.6)
197. D (2D-5.1)
198. A (2D-5.2)
199. D (2D-6.1)
200. D (2D-6.2)
201. A (2D-6.3)
202. D (2D-6.4)
203. A (2D-6.5)
204. C (2D-7-1.1)
205. D (2D-7-1.2)
206. D (2D-7-2.1)
207. C (2D-7-2.2)
208. D (2D-7-2.3)
209. C (2D-7-2.4)
210. A (2D-7-3.1)
211. A (2D-7-3.2)
212. B (2D-7-3.3)
213. C (2D-7-3.4)
214. C (2D-8-1.1)
215. B (2D-8-1.2)
216. C (2D-8-1.3)
217. B (2D-8-1.4)
218. A (2D-8-2.1)
219. A (2D-8-2.2)
220. A (2D-8-2.3)
221. C (2D-8-2.4)
222. D (2D-8-2.5)
223. B (2D-8-2.6)
224. A (2D-8-3.1)
225. B (2D-8-3.2)
226. C (2E-1-1.1)
227. B (2E-1-2.1)
228. D (2E-1-2.2)
229. B (2E-1-3.1)
230. D (2E-1-3.2)
231. B (2E-1-4.1)
232. C (2E-1-5.1)
233. C (2E-1-5.2)
234. B (2E-1-6.1)
235. B (2E-1-7.1)
236. D (2E-2-1.1)
237. C (2E-2-2.1)
238. A (2E-3-1.1)
239. D (2E-3-1.2)
240. C (2E-3-1.3)
241. A (2E-3-2.1)
242. C (2E-4.1)
243. A (2E-5.1)
244. D (2E-6-1.1)
245. A (2E-6-1.2)
246. D (2E-6-2.1)
247. C (2E-7.1)
248. C (2E-7.2)
249. B (2E-7.3)
250. C (2E-7.4)
251. D (2E-8.1)
252. A (2E-8.2)
253. C (2E-9-1.1)
254. C (2E-9-1.2)
255. B (2E-9-2.1)
256. C (2E-10.1)
257. D (2E-11.1)
258. B (2E-12-1.1)
259. A (2E-12-2.1)
260. D (2E-12-3.1)
261. A (2E-12-3.2)
262. A (2E-12-3.3)
263. B (2E-12-4.1)
264. A (2E-12-4.2)
265. B (2E-12-4.3)
266. C (2E-12-5.1)
267. B (2E-12-5.2)
268. C (2E-13.1)
269. D (2E-13.2)
270. B (2F-1.1)
271. C (2F-1.2)
272. C (2F-1.3)
273. A (2F-2.1)
274. A (2F-2.2)
275. B (2F-2.3)
276. D (2F-2.4)
277. A (2F-2.5)
278. C (2F-3.1)
279. C (2F-4.1)
280. B (2F-4.2)
281. D (2F-5.1)
282. B (2F-5.2)
283. A (2F-5.3)
284. D (2F-5.4)
285. D (2F-6.1)
286. C (2F-7.1)
287. A (2F-7.2)
288. C (2F-7.3)
289. B (2F-7.4)
290. A (2F-8.1)
291. B (2G-1-1.1)
292. C (2G-1-1.2)
293. D (2G-1-1.3)
294. A (2G-1-1.4)
295. D (2G-1-1.5)
296. B (2G-1-2.1)
297. A (2G-1-2.2)
298. B (2G-1-2.3)
299. D (2G-1-2.4)
300. D (2G-1-2.5)
301. B (2G-2.1)
302. C (2G-2.2)
303. C (2G-2.3)
304. D (2G-3.1)
305. D (2G-3.2)
306. A (2G-4.1)
307. C (2G-4.2)
308. A (2G-5.1)
309. A (2G-5.2)
310. C (2G-5.3)
311. B (2H-1-1.1)
312. C (2H-1-1.2)
313. A (2H-1-2.1)
314. A (2H-1-2.2)
315. A (2H-1-3.1)
316. D (2H-1-4.1)
317. B (2H-2.1)
318. D (2H-2.2)
319. C (2H-3.1)
320. B (2H-3.2)
321. D (2H-4.1)
322. B (2H-4.2)
323. A (2H-5.1)
324. C (2H-5.2)
325. A (2H-6.1)
326. C (2H-6.2)
327. A (2H-6.3)
328. C (2H-7.1)
329. D (2H-7.2)
330. A (2H-7.3)
331. B (2H-7.4)
332. B (2H-7.5)
333. B (2H-7.6)
334. A (2I-1.1)
335. D (2I-1.2)
336. C (2I-1.3)
337. C (2I-1.4)
338. D (2I-1.5)
339. D (2I-2.1)
340. D (2I-2.2)
341. B (2I-2.3)
342. B (2I-2.4)
343. A (2I-2.5)
344. B (2I-3.1)
345. C (2I-3.2)
346. D (2I-4-1.1)
347. B (2I-4-1.2)
348. C (2I-4-1.3)
349. D (2I-4-2.1)
350. A (2I-4-2.2)
351. B (2I-4-2.3)
352. A (2I-4-2.4)
353. A (2I-5.1)
354. B (2I-5.2)
355. C (2I-5.3)
356. D (2I-6.1)
357. B (2I-6.2)
358. B (2I-6.3)
359. B (2I-6.4)
360. C (2I-6.5)
361. B (2I-7.1)
362. C (2I-7.2)
363. D (2I-7.3)
364. A (2I-7.4)
365. B (2I-7.5)
366. C (2I-8.1)
367. C (2I-8.2)
368. D (2I-9.1)
369. A (2I-9.2)
370. A (2I-9.3)
371. C (2I-10-1.1)
372. D (2I-11-1.1)
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