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Sample questions for the General test
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This is an ASCII text version of the Amateur General Class question pool.
There is a supplementary section after the answers for this original section.
It is left up to you to position those supplementary corrections, question,
and possible answers. Direct any questions to [email protected].
73 de WB5ULK
SUBELEMENT 3BA -- Rules and Regulations (4 questions)
1. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
10.14-MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts DC input
2. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
3725-kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts DC input
3. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
7080-kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts DC input
4. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
24.95-MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts DC input
5. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station
transmitting on 21.150-MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts DC input
C. 1500 watts DC input
D. 1500 watts PEP output
6. How must a General control operator at a Novice station make the station
identification when transmitting on 7050-kHz?
A. The control operator should identify the station with his or her
call, followed by the word "controlling" and the Novice call
B. The control operator should identify the station with his or her
call, followed by the slant bar "/" and the Novice call
C. The control operator should identify the station with the Novice
call, followed by the slant bar "/" and his or her own call
D. A Novice station should not be operated on 7050 kHz, even with a
General class control operator
7. How must a newly-upgraded General control operator with a Certificate
of Successful Completion of Examination identify the station when
transmitting on 14.325-MHz pending the receipt of a new operator license?
A. General-class privileges do not include 14.325 MHz
B. No special form of identification is needed
C. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by the words
"temporary" and the two-letter ID code shown on the Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination
D. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by the date and
location of the VEC examination where he/she obtained the upgraded license
8. Under what circumstances, if any, may third-party traffic be transmitted
to a foreign country by an amateur station?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the country has a third-party traffic agreement with the
United States
C. Only if the control operator is an Amateur Extra class licensee
D. Only if the country has formal diplomatic relations with the United
States
9. What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station to a
foreign country for a third-party?
A. Third-party traffic involving material compensation, either
tangible or intangible, direct or indirect, to a third party, a station
licensee, a control operator, or any other person
B. Third-party traffic consisting of business communications on behalf
of any party
C. Only third-party traffic which does not involve material
compensation of any kind, and is not business communication of any type
D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third
parties
10. What additional limitations apply to third-party messages transmitted
to foreign countries?
A. Third-party messages may only be transmitted to amateurs in
countries with which the US has a third-party traffic agreement
B. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU Region 1
C. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU Region 3
D. Third-party messages must always be transmitted in English
11. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmitting
on 29.64-MHz repeat the 146.34-MHz signals of an amateur station with a
Technician control operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 29.64 MHz is operating under a Special
Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications
emergency
D. Only if the control operator of the repeater transmitter is
authorized to operate on 29.64 MHz
12. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 160
meter band?
A. 1800 to 1900 kHz only
B. 1900 to 2000 kHz only
C. 1800 to 2000 kHz only
D. 1825 to 2000 kHz only
13. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
75/80 meter band?
A. 3525 to 3750 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only
B. 3525 to 3775 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only
C. 3525 to 3750 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only
D. 3525 to 3775 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only
14. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 40
meter band?
A. 7025 to 7175 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only
B. 7025 to 7175 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only
C. 7025 to 7150 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only
D. 7025 to 7150 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only
15. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 30
meter band?
A. 10,100 to 10,150 kHz only
B. 10,105 to 10,150 kHz only
C. 10,125 to 10,150 kHz only
D. 10,100 to 10,125 kHz only
16. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 20
meter band?
A. 14,025 to 14,100 and 14,175 to 14,350 kHz only
B. 14,025 to 14,150 and 14,225 to 14,350 kHz only
C. 14,025 to 14,125 and 14,200 to 14,350 kHz only
D. 14,025 to 14,175 and 14,250 to 14,350 kHz only
17. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 15
meter band?
A. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only
B. 21,025 to 21,150 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only
C. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only
D. 21,000 to 21,150 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only
18. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 12
meter band?
A. 24,890 to 24,990 kHz only
B. 24,890 to 24,975 kHz only
C. 24,900 to 24,990 kHz only
D. 24,790 to 24,990 kHz only
19. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 10
meter band?
A. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only
B. 28,025 to 29,700 kHz only
C. 28,100 to 29,700 kHz only
D. 28,025 to 29,600 kHz only
20. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 1820-kHz?
A. Extra only
B. Extra, Advanced only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
21. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 3950-kHz?
A. Extra, Advanced only
B. Extra, Advanced, General only
C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
22. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 7230-kHz?
A. Extra only
B. Extra, Advanced only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
23. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 10.125-MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General only
B. Extra, Advanced only
C. Extra only
D. Technician only
24. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 14.325-MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
B. Extra, Advanced, General only
C. Extra, Advanced only
D. Extra only
25. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 21.425-MHz?
A. Extra, Advanced, General, Novice only
B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. Extra, Advanced only
26. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 24.895-MHz?
A. Extra only
B. Extra, Advanced only
C. Extra, Advanced, General only
D. None
27. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 29.616-MHz?
A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Extra
B. Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only
C. General, Advanced, Extra only
D. Advanced, Extra only
28. On what frequencies within the 160 meter band may emission A3E be
transmitted?
A. 1800-2000 kHz only
B. 1800-1900 kHz only
C. 1900-2000 kHz only
D. 1825-1950 kHz only
29. On what frequencies within the 80 meter band may emission A1A be
transmitted?
A. 3500-3750 kHz only
B. 3700-3750 kHz only
C. 3500-4000 kHz only
D. 3890-4000 kHz only
30. On what frequencies within the 40 meter band may emission A3F be
transmitted?
A. 7225-7300 kHz only
B. 7000-7300 kHz only
C. 7100-7150 kHz only
D. 7150-7300 kHz only
31. On what frequencies within the 30 meter band may emission F1B be
transmitted?
A. 10.140-10.150 MHz only
B. 10.125-10.150 MHz only
C. 10.100-10.150 MHz only
D. 10.100-10.125 MHz only
32. On what frequencies within the 20 meter band may emission A3C be
transmitted?
A. 14,200-14,300 kHz only
B. 14,150-14,350 kHz only
C. 14,025-14,150 kHz only
D. 14,150-14,300 kHz only
33. On what frequencies within the 15 meter band may emission F3C be
transmitted?
A. 21,200-21,300 kHz only
B. 21,350-21,450 kHz only
C. 21,200-21,450 kHz only
D. 21,100-21,200 kHz only
34. On what frequencies within the 12 meter band may emission J3E be
transmitted?
A. 24,890-24,990 kHz only
B. 24,890-24,930 kHz only
C. 24,930-24,990 kHz only
D. J3E is not permitted in this band
35. On what frequencies within the 10 meter band may emission A3E be
transmitted?
A. 28,000-28,300 kHz only
B. 29,000-29,700 kHz only
C. 28,300-29,700 kHz only
D. 28,000-29,000 kHz only
36. How is the sending speed (signaling rate) for digital communications
determined?
A. By taking the reciprocal of the shortest (signaling) time interval
(in minutes) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is
the period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in
emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized)
B. By taking the square root of the shortest (signaling) time interval
(in seconds) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is
the period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in
emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized)
C. By taking the reciprocal of the shortest (signaling) time interval
(in seconds) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is
the period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in
emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized)
D. By taking the square root of the shortest (signaling) time interval
(in minutes) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is
the period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in
emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized)
37. What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an emission F1B
transmission below 28-MHz?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
38. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station engage in some
form of broadcasting?
A. During severe storms, amateurs may broadcast weather information
for people with scanners
B. Under no circumstances
C. If power levels under one watt are used, amateur stations may
broadcast information bulletins, but not music
D. Amateur broadcasting is permissible above 10 GHz
39. What protection, if any, is afforded an amateur station transmission
against retransmission by a broadcast station?
A. No protection whatsoever
B. The broadcaster must secure permission for retransmission from the
control operator of the amateur station
C. The broadcaster must petition the FCC for retransmission rights 30
days in advance
D. Retransmissions may only be made during a declared emergency
40. Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a violin be
transmitted by an amateur station?
A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
C. Only above 1215 MHz
D. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service
41. Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a piano be
transmitted by an amateur station?
A. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
B. Only above 1215 MHz
C. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service
D. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
42. Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a harmonica be
transmitted by an amateur station?
A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
B. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service
C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
D. Only above 1215 MHz
43. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit a
message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning?
A. Only above 450 MHz
B. Only on Field Day
C. Never
D. Only during a declared communications emergency
44. What types of abbreviations or signals are not considered codes or
ciphers?
A. Abbreviations and signals certified by the ARRL
B. Abbreviations and signals established by regulation or custom and
usage and whose intent is to facilitate communication and not to obscure
meaning
C. No abbreviations are permitted, as they tend to obscure the meaning
of the message to FCC monitoring stations
D. Only "10-codes" are permitted
45. When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in domestic amateur
radiocommunications?
A. Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored contests
C. Codes and ciphers are permitted during nationally declared
emergencies
D. Codes and ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz
46. When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in international amateur
radiocommunications?
A. Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during ITU-sponsored DX contests
C. Codes and ciphers are permitted during internationally declared
emergencies
D. Codes and ciphers are permitted only on frequencies above 2.3 GHz
SUBELEMENT 3BB -- Operating Procedures (3 questions)
47. What is meant by the term flattopping in an emission J3E transmission?
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
48. How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on an emission J3E
transmitter?
A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks
D. For a dip in plate current
49. In which segment of the 20 meter band do most emission F1B transmissions
take place?
A. Between 14.000 and 14.050 MHz
B. Between 14.075 and 14.100 MHz
C. Between 14.150 and 14.225 MHz
D. Between 14.275 and 14.350 MHz
50. In which segment of the 80 meter band do most emission F1B transmissions
take place?
A. 3.610 to 3.630 MHz
B. 3500 to 3525 kHz
C. 3700 to 3750 kHz
D. 3.775 to 3.825 MHz
51. What is meant by the term Baudot?
A. Baudot is a 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
B. Baudot is a 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and
three space bits
C. Baudot is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
D. Baudot is a 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
52. What is meant by the term ASCII?
A. ASCII is a 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
B. ASCII is a 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and
three space bits
C. ASCII is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
D. ASCII is a 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and
two space bits
53. What is the most common frequency shift for emission F1B transmissions
in the amateur HF bands?
A. 85 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 425 Hz
D. 850 Hz
54. What are the two subset modes of AMTOR?
A. A mark of 2125 Hz and a space of 2295 Hz
B. Baudot and ASCII
C. ARQ and FEC
D. USB and LSB
55. What is the meaning of the term ARQ?
A. Automatic Repeater Queue
B. Automatic Receiver Quieting
C. Automatically Resend Quickly
D. Automatic Repeat Request
56. What is the meaning of the term FEC?
A. Frame Error Check
B. Forward Error Correction
C. Frequency Envelope Control
D. Frequency Encoded Connection
57. What is a band plan?
A. An outline adopted by Amateur Radio operators for operating within
a specific portion of radio spectrum
B. An arrangement for deviating from FCC Rules and Regulations
C. A schedule for operating devised by the Federal Communications
Commission
D. A plan devised for a club on how best to use a band during a
contest
58. What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 10 meter
station in repeater operation?
A. 100 kHz
B. 600 kHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 170 Hz
59. What is meant by the term VOX transmitter control?
A. Circuitry that causes the transmitter to transmit automatically
when the operator speaks into the microphone
B. Circuitry that shifts the frequency of the transmitter when the
operator switches from radiotelegraphy to radiotelephony
C. Circuitry that activates the receiver incremental tuning in a
transceiver
D. Circuitry that isolates the microphone from the ambient noise level
60. What is the common name for the circuit that causes a transmitter to
automatically transmit when a person speaks into the microphone?
A. VXO
B. VOX
C. VCO
D. VFO
61. What is meant by the term full break-in telegraphy?
A. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the breaking
station sends the Morse Code symbol BK
B. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which only automatic
keyers can be used
C. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the operator must
activate the send-receive switch after completing a transmission
D. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the receiver is
sensitive to incoming signals between transmitted key pulses
62. What Q signal is used to indicate full break-in telegraphy capability?
A. QSB
B. QSF
C. QSK
D. QSV
63. When selecting an emission A1A transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed
in order to minimize interference?
A. 5 to 50 Hz
B. 150 to 500 Hz
C. Approximately 3 kHz
D. Approximately 6 kHz
64. When selecting an emission J3E transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed
in order to minimize interference?
A. 150 to 500 Hz between suppressed carriers
B. Approximately 3 kHz between suppressed carriers
C. Approximately 6 kHz between suppressed carriers
D. Approximately 10 kHz between suppressed carriers
65. When selecting an emission F1B RTTY transmitting frequency, what is the
minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed
in order to minimize interference?
A. Approximately 45 Hz center to center
B. Approximately 250 to 500 Hz center to center
C. Approximately 3 kHz center to center
D. Approximately 6 kHz center to center
66. What is an azimuthal map?
A. A map projection that is always centered on the North Pole
B. A map projection, centered on a particular location, that
determines the shortest path between two points on the surface of the earth
C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses
the equator
D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur
satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
67. How can an azimuthal map be helpful in conducting international HF
radiocommunications?
A. It is used to determine the proper beam heading for the shortest
path to a DX station
B. It is used to determine the most efficient transmitting antenna
height to conduct the desired communication
C. It is used to determine the angle at which an amateur satellite
crosses the equator
D. It is used to determine the maximum usable frequency (MUF)
68. What is the most useful type of map when orienting a directional antenna
toward a station 5,000 miles distant?
A. Azimuthal
B. Mercator
C. Polar projection
D. Topographical
69. A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another
station is generally oriented how many degrees from the short-path heading?
A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 270 degrees
70. What is the short-path heading to Antarctica?
A. Approximately 0 degrees
B. Approximately 90 degrees
C. Approximately 180 degrees
D. Approximately 270 degrees
71. When permitted, transmissions to amateur stations in another country
must be limited to only what type of messages?
A. Messages of any type are permitted
B. Messages that compete with public telecommunications services
C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character
of relative unimportance
D. Such transmissions are never permitted
72. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the continental
United States?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
73. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Alaska?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
74. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is American Samoa?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
75. For uniformity in international radiocommunication, what time
measurement standard should amateur radio operators worldwide use?
A. Eastern Standard Time
B. Uniform Calibrated Time
C. Coordinated Universal Time
D. Universal Time Control
76. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Hawaii?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
77. In which International Telecommunication Union Region are the Northern
Mariana Islands?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
78. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Guam?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
79. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Wake Island?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
80. What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau?
A. Amateur Volunteers formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for
rules violations
B. Amateur Volunteers who conduct Amateur Radio licensing examinations
C. Amateur Volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur
VHF repeaters
D. Amateur Volunteers who determine height above average terrain
measurements for repeater installations
81. What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field
Operations Bureau?
A. To enforce amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules
B. To foster amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules
C. To promote efficient and orderly spectrum usage in the repeater
subbands
D. To provide emergency and public safety communications
SUBELEMENT 3BC -- Radio-Wave Propagation (3 questions)
82. What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that can normally
be covered in one hop using the F2 layer?
A. Approximately 180 miles
B. Approximately 1200 miles
C. Approximately 2500 miles
D. No distance; this layer does not support radio communication
83. What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that can be
covered in one hop using the E layer?
A. Approximately 180 miles
B. Approximately 1200 miles
C. Approximately 2500 miles
D. No distance; this layer does not support radio communication
84. What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E layer?
A. 45 miles
B. 70 miles
C. 200 miles
D. 1200 miles
85. During what part of the day, and in what season of the year can the F2
layer be expected to reach its maximum height?
A. At noon during the summer
B. At midnight during the summer
C. At dusk in the spring and fall
D. At noon during the winter
86. What is the critical angle, as used in radio wave propagation?
A. The lowest take off angle that will return a radio wave to earth
under specific ionospheric conditions
B. The compass direction of the desired DX station from your location
C. The 180-degree-inverted compass direction of the desired DX station
from your location
D. The highest take off angle that will return a radio wave to earth
during specific ionospheric conditions
87. What is the main reason that the 160, 80, and 40 meter amateur bands
tend to be useful for only short-distance communications during daylight
hours?
A. Because of a lack of activity
B. Because of auroral propagation
C. Because of D-layer absorption
D. Because of magnetic flux
88. What is the principal reason the 160 meter through 40 meter bands are
useful for only short-distance radiocommunications during daylight hours?
A. F-layer bending
B. Gamma radiation
C. D-layer absorption
D. Tropospheric ducting
89. If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to Africa is
22-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful QSO?
A. 10 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 40 meters
90. If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to West Germany
is 17-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful QSO?
A. 80 meters
B. 40 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 2 meters
91. Over what periods of time do sudden ionospheric disturbances normally
last?
A. The entire day
B. A few minutes to a few hours
C. A few hours to a few days
D. Approximately one week
92. What can be done at an amateur station to continue radiocommunications
during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
A. Try a higher frequency
B. Try the other sideband
C. Try a different antenna polarization
D. Try a different frequency shift
93. What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daylight
ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
A. Disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths
B. Disrupts transmissions on lower frequencies more than those on
higher frequencies
C. Disrupts communications via satellite more than direct
communications
D. None. Only dark (as in nighttime) areas of the globe are affected
94. How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases the sun's
ultraviolet radiation to cause ionospheric disturbances on earth?
A. Instantaneously
B. 1.5 seconds
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
95. Sudden ionospheric disturbances cause increased radio wave absorption
in which layer of the ionosphere?
A. D layer
B. E layer
C. F1 layer
D. F2 layer
96. What is a characteristic of backscatter signals?
A. High intelligibility
B. A wavering sound
C. Reversed modulation
D. Reversed sidebands
97. What makes backscatter signals often sound distorted?
A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field
B. The propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the
signal's clarity
C. The earth's E-layer at the point of radio wave refraction
D. The small part of the signal's energy scattered back to the
transmitter skip zone through several radio-wave paths
98. What is the radio wave propagation phenomenon that allows a signal to
be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near
for normal sky wave propagation?
A. Ground wave
B. Scatter
C. Sporadic-E skip
D. Short path skip
99. When does ionospheric scatter propagation on the HF bands most often
occur?
A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum
B. At night
C. When the F1 and F2 layers are combined
D. At frequencies above the maximum usable frequency
100. What is solar flux?
A. The density of the sun's magnetic field
B. The radio energy emitted by the sun
C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the earth
D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side toward
the sun
101. What is the solar-flux index?
A. A measure of past measurements of solar activity
B. A measurement of solar activity that compares daily readings with
results from the last six months
C. Another name for the American sunspot number
D. A measure of solar activity that is taken daily
102. What is a timely indicator of solar activity?
A. The 2800-MHz solar flux index
B. The mean Canadian sunspot number
C. A clock set to Coordinated Universal Time
D. Van Allen radiation measurements taken at Boulder, Colorado
103. What type of propagation conditions on the 15 meter band are indicated
by a solar-flux index value of 60 to 70?
A. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
B. No ionospheric propagation is possible
C. Excellent ionospheric propagation
D. Poor ionospheric propagation
104. A solar flux index in the range of 90 to 110 indicates what type of
propagation conditions on the 15 meter band?
A. Poor ionospheric propagation
B. No ionospheric propagation is possible
C. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
D. Good ionospheric propagation
105. A solar flux index of greater than 120 would indicate what type of
propagation conditions on the 10 meter band?
A. Good ionospheric propagation
B. Poor ionospheric propagation
C. No ionospheric propagation is possible
D. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation
106. For widespread long distance openings on the 6 meter band, what
solar-flux index values would be required?
A. Less than 50
B. Approximately 75
C. Greater than 100
D. Greater than 250
107. If the MUF is high and HF radiocommunications are generally good for
several days, a similar condition can usually be expected how many days
later?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 28 days
D. 90 days
108. What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
C. Ripples in the ionosphere
D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short period
of time
109. Which latitude paths are more susceptible to geomagnetic disturbances?
A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
B. Those less than 45 degrees latitude
C. Equatorial paths
D. All paths are affected equally
110. What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on
radiocommunications?
A. Improved high-latitude HF communications
B. Degraded high-latitude HF communications
C. Improved ground-wave propagation
D. Improved chances of ducting at UHF
111. How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases the sun's
radiation of charged particles to affect radio wave propagation on earth?
A. The effect is instantaneous
B. 1.5 seconds
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
SUBELEMENT 3BD -- Amateur Radio Practice (5 questions)
112. Which wires in a four conductor line cord should be attached to fuses
in a 234-VAC primary (single phase) power supply?
A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire
C. Only the ground (bare) wire
D. All wires
113. What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 117-VAC household
lighting circuit?
A. AWG number 14
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 18
D. AWG number 22
114. What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 117-VAC household
appliance circuit?
A. AWG number 20
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 14
D. AWG number 12
115. What could be a cause of the room lights dimming when the transmitter
is keyed?
A. RF in the AC pole transformer
B. High resistance in the key contacts
C. A drop in AC line voltage
D. The line cord is wired incorrectly
116. What size fuse should be used on a #12 wire household appliance circuit?
A. Maximum of 100 amperes
B. Maximum of 60 amperes
C. Maximum of 30 amperes
D. Maximum of 20 amperes
117. What safety feature is provided by a bleeder resistor in a power supply?
A. It improves voltage regulation
B. It discharges the filter capacitors
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D. It eliminates ground-loop current
118. What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity of an
emission J3E transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope?
A. Normal speech
B. An audio-frequency sine wave
C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
D. An audio-frequency square wave
119. To test the amplitude linearity of an emission J3E transmitter with an
oscilloscope, what should the audio input to the transmitter be?
A. Normal speech
B. An audio-frequency sine wave
C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
D. An audio-frequency square wave
120. How are two-tones used to test the amplitude linearity of an emission
J3E transmitter?
A. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone
input of a J3E transmitter, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope
B. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone
input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on a distortion analyzer
C. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on an
oscilloscope
D. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the
microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on a
wattmeter
121. What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the linearity of
an emission J3E transmitter?
A. 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz tones must be used
B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
C. Any two audio tones may be used, if they are harmonically related
D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically related
122. What can be determined by making a two-tone test using an oscilloscope?
A. The percent of frequency modulation
B. The percent of carrier phase shift
C. The frequency deviation
D. The amplifier linearity
123. How can the grid-current meter in a power amplifier be used as a
neutralizing indicator?
A. Tune for minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is
changed
B. Tune for maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is
changed
C. Tune for minimum grid current
D. Tune for maximum grid current
124. Why is neutralization in some vacuum tube amplifiers necessary?
A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q in practical tuned circuits
B. To reduce grid to cathode leakage
C. To cancel acid build-up caused by thorium oxide gas
D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode
capacitance
125. How is neutralization of an RF amplifier accomplished?
A. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input on
alternate half cycles
B. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted
360 degrees out of phase
C. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted
180 degrees out of phase
D. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input with a
proper DC bias
126. What purpose does a neutralizing circuit serve in an RF amplifier?
A. It controls differential gain
B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback
C. It eliminates circulating currents
D. It reduces incidental grid modulation
127. What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a
transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index
B. To eliminate parasitic oscillations
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D. To keep the carrier on frequency
128. How can the output PEP of a transmitter be determined with an
oscilloscope?
A. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)]/(RL)
B. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)]/RL
C. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL)
D. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)]/RL
129. What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope shows
200-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistor connected to the transmitter
output terminals?
A. 100 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 1000 watts
130. What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope shows
500-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistor connected to the transmitter
output terminals?
A. 500 watts
B. 625 watts
C. 1250 watts
D. 2500 watts
131. What is the output PEP from an N0N transmitter when an average-reading
wattmeter connected to the transmitter output terminals indicates 1060 watts?
A. 530 watts
B. 1060 watts
C. 1500 watts
D. 2120 watts
132. What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel
amplifiers?
A. The ohmmeter
B. The signal generator
C. The ammeter
D. The oscilloscope
133. What types of signals can an oscilloscope measure?
A. Any time-dependent signal within the bandwidth capability of the
instrument
B. Blinker-light signals from ocean-going vessels
C. International nautical flag signals
D. Signals created by aeronautical flares
134. What is an oscilloscope?
A. An instrument that displays the radiation resistance of an antenna
B. An instrument that displays the SWR on a feed line
C. An instrument that displays the resistance in a circuit
D. An instrument that displays signal waveforms
135. What can cause phosphor damage to an oscilloscope cathode ray tube?
A. Directly connecting deflection electrodes to the cathode ray tube
B. Too high an intensity setting
C. Overdriving the vertical amplifier
D. Improperly adjusted focus
136. What is a signal tracer?
A. A direction-finding antenna
B. An aid for following schematic diagrams
C. A device for detecting signals in a circuit
D. A device for drawing signal waveforms
137. How is a signal tracer used?
A. To detect the presence of a signal in the various stages of a
receiver
B. To locate a source of interference
C. To trace the path of a radio signal through the ionosphere
D. To draw a waveform on paper
138. What is a signal tracer normally used for?
A. To identify the source of radio transmissions
B. To make exact replicas of signals
C. To give a visual indication of standing waves on open-wire feed
lines
D. To identify an inoperative stage in a radio receiver
139. What is the most effective way to reduce or eliminate audio frequency
interference to home entertainment systems?
A. Install bypass inductors
B. Install bypass capacitors
C. Install metal oxide varistors
D. Install bypass resistors
140. What should be done when a properly-operating amateur station is the
source of interference to a nearby telephone?
A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
B. Contact a phone service representative about installing RFI filters
C. Nothing can be done to cure the interference
D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier
141. What sound is heard from a public address system when audio
rectification occurs in response to a nearby emission J3E transmission?
A. A steady hum that persists while the transmitter's carrier is on
the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals
142. How can the possibility of audio rectification occurring be minimized?
A. By using a solid state transmitter
B. By using CW emission only
C. By ensuring all station equipment is properly grounded
D. By using AM emission only
143. What sound is heard from a public address system when audio
rectification occurs in response to a nearby emission A3E transmission?
A. Audible, possibly distorted speech from the transmitter signals
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Muffled, distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
D. Extremely loud, severely distorted speech from the transmitter's
signals
144. What is the reason for using a speech processor with an emission J3E
transmitter?
A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average transmitter
power requirements
B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup
from the microphone
C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice frequency
fidelity
D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal
intelligibility at the receiver
145. When a transmitter is 100% modulated, will a speech processor increase
the output PEP?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It will decrease the transmitter's peak power output
D. It will decrease the transmitter's average power output
146. Under which band conditions should a speech processor not be used?
A. When there is high atmospheric noise on the band
B. When the band is crowded
C. When the frequency in use is clear
D. When the sunspot count is relatively high
147. What effect can result from using a speech processor with an emission
J3E transmitter?
A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average transmitter
power requirements
B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup
from the microphone
C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice frequency
fidelity
D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal
intelligibility at the receiver
148. At what point in a coaxial line should an electronic T-R switch be
installed?
A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna
C. At the antenna feed point
D. Right after the low-pass filter
149. Why is an electronic T-R switch preferable to a mechanical one?
A. Greater receiver sensitivity
B. Circuit simplicity
C. Higher operating speed
D. Cleaner output signals
150. What station accessory facilitates QSK operation?
A. Oscilloscope
B. Audio CW filter
C. Antenna relay
D. Electronic TR switch
151. What is an antenna noise bridge?
A. An instrument for measuring the noise figure of an antenna or other
electrical circuit
B. An instrument for measuring the impedance of an antenna or other
electrical circuit
C. An instrument for measuring solar flux
D. An instrument for tuning out noise in a receiver
152. How is an antenna noise bridge used?
A. It is connected at the antenna feed point, and the noise is read
directly
B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and tuned for
minimum SWR
C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance and
tuned for minimum noise
D. It is connected between an antenna and a Transmatch and adjusted
for minimum SWR
153. How does the emitted waveform from a properly-adjusted emission J3E
transmitter appear on a monitoring oscilloscope?
A. A vertical line
B. A waveform that mirrors the input waveform
C. A square wave
D. Two loops at right angles
154. What is the best instrument for checking transmitted signal quality from
an emissions A1A/J3E transmitter?
A. A monitor oscilloscope
B. A field strength meter
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A diode probe and an audio amplifier
155. What is a monitoring oscilloscope?
A. A device used by the FCC to detect out-of-band signals
B. A device used to observe the waveform of a transmitted signal
C. A device used to display SSTV signals
D. A device used to display signals in a receiver IF stage
156. How is a monitoring oscilloscope connected in a station in order to
check the quality of the transmitted signal?
A. Connect the receiver IF output to the vertical-deflection plates
of the oscilloscope
B. Connect the transmitter audio input to the oscilloscope vertical
input
C. Connect a receiving antenna directly to the oscilloscope vertical
input
D. Connect the transmitter output to the vertical-deflection plates
of the oscilloscope
157. What is the most appropriate instrument to use when determining antenna
horizontal radiation patterns?
A. A field strength meter
B. A grid-dip meter
C. A wave meter
D. A vacuum-tube voltmeter
158. What is a field-strength meter?
A. A device for determining the standing-wave ratio on a transmission
line
B. A device for checking modulation on the output of a transmitter
C. A device for monitoring relative RF output
D. A device for increasing the average transmitter output
159. What is a simple instrument that can be useful for monitoring relative
RF output during antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A Transmatch
160. When the power output from a transmitter is increased by four times, how
should the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver change?
A. Decrease by approximately one S-unit
B. Increase by approximately one S-unit
C. Increase by approximately four S-units
D. Decrease by approximately four S-units
161. By how many times must the power output from a transmitter be increased
to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S-8 to S-9?
A. Approximately 2 times
B. Approximately 3 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 5 times
SUBELEMENT 3BE -- Electrical Principles (2 questions)
162. What is meant by the term impedance?
A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only
capacitance
C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
D. The force of repulsion presented to an electric field by another
field with the same charge
163. What is the opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing both
resistance and reactance called?
A. Ohm
B. Joule
C. Impedance
D. Watt
164. What is meant by the term reactance?
A. Opposition to DC caused by resistors
B. Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is
de-energized
165. What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by an inductor called?
A. Resistance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D. Reactance
166. What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by a capacitor called?
A. Resistance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D. Reactance
167. How does a coil react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
increases
168. How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
169. When will a power source deliver maximum output?
A. When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the
source
B. When the SWR has reached a maximum value
C. When the power supply fuse rating equals the primary winding
current
D. When air wound transformers are used instead of iron core
transformers
170. What is meant by impedance matching?
A. To make the load impedance much greater than the source impedance
B. To make the load impedance much less than the source impedance
C. To use a balun at the antenna feed point
D. To make the load impedance equal the source impedance
171. What occurs when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the
internal impedance of the power source?
A. The source delivers minimum power to the load
B. There will be a high SWR condition
C. No current can flow through the circuit
D. The source delivers maximum power to the load
172. Why is impedance matching important in radio work?
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the
circuit
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are
equal
173. What is the unit measurement of reactance?
A. Mho
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Siemen
174. What is the unit measurement of impedance?
A. Ohm
B. Volt
C. Ampere
D. Watt
175. What is a bel?
A. The basic unit used to describe a change in power levels
B. The basic unit used to describe a change in inductances
C. The basic unit used to describe a change in capacitances
D. The basic unit used to describe a change in resistances
176. What is a decibel?
A. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 0.1 bel
B. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 0.01 bel
C. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 10 bels
D. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 100 bels
177. Under ideal conditions, a barely detectable change in loudness is
approximately how many dB?
A. 12 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 1 dB
178. A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?
A. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 1 dB
higher
B. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 3 dB
higher
C. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 6 dB
higher
D. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 12
dB higher
179. An increase of 6 dB results from raising the power by how many times?
A. Multiply the original power by 1.5 to get the new power
B. Multiply the original power by 2 to get the new power
C. Multiply the original power by 3 to get the new power
D. Multiply the original power by 4 to get the new power
180. A decrease of 3 dB results from lowering the power by how many times?
A. Divide the original power by 1.5 to get the new power
B. Divide the original power by 2 to get the new power
C. Divide the original power by 3 to get the new power
D. Divide the original power by 4 to get the new power
181. A signal strength report is "10 dB over S9". If the transmitter power
is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts, what should be the new signal
strength report?
A. S5
B. S7
C. S9
D. S9 plus 5 dB
182. A signal strength report is "20 dB over S9". If the transmitter power
is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts, what should be the new signal
strength report?
A. S5
B. S7
C. S9
D. S9 plus 10 dB
183. A signal strength report is "20 dB over S9". If the transmitter power
is reduced from 1500 watts to 15 watts, what should be the new signal
strength report?
A. S5
B. S7
C. S9
D. S9 plus 10 dB
184. If a 1.0-ampere current source is connected to two parallel-connected
10 ohm resistors, how much current passes through each resistor?
A. 10 amperes
B. 2 amperes
C. 1 ampere
D. 0.5 ampere
185. In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch
resistors, what relationship does the total current have to the current in
the branch circuits?
A. The total current equals the average of the branch current through
each resistor
B. The total current equals the sum of the branch current through each
resistor
C. The total current decreases as more parallel resistors are added
to the circuit
D. The total current is calculated by adding the voltage drops across
each resistor and multiplying the sum by the total number of all circuit
resistors
186. How many watts of electrical power are being used when a 400-VDC power
source supplies an 800 ohm load?
A. 0.5 watt
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 320,000 watts
187. How many watts of electrical power are being consumed by a 12-VDC pilot
light which draws 0.2-amperes?
A. 60 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 2.4 watts
188. How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0-milliamperes flows through
1.25 kilohms?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 39 milliwatts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 9 milliwatts
189. How is the total resistance calculated for several resistors in series?
A. The total resistance must be divided by the number of resistors to
ensure accurate measurement of resistance
B. The total resistance is always the lowest-rated resistance
C. The total resistance is found by adding the individual resistances
together
D. The tolerance of each resistor must be raised proportionally to the
number of resistors
190. What is the total resistance of two equal, parallel-connected resistors?
A. Twice the resistance of either resistance
B. The sum of the two resistances
C. The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
resistances
D. Half the resistance of either resistor
191. What is the total inductance of two equal, parallel-connected inductors?
A. Half the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling
B. Twice the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual
coupling
C. The sum of the two inductances, assuming no mutual coupling
D. The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
inductances
192. What is the total capacitance of two equal, parallel-connected
capacitors?
A. Half the capacitance of either capacitor
B. Twice the capacitance of either capacitor
C. The value of either capacitor
D. The total capacitance cannot be determined without knowing the
exact capacitances
193. What is the total resistance of two equal, series-connected resistors?
A. Half the resistance of either resistor
B. Twice the resistance of either resistor
C. The value of either resistor
D. The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
resistances
194. What is the total inductance of two equal, series-connected inductors?
A. Half the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling
B. Twice the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual
coupling
C. The value of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling
D. The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
inductances
195. What is the total capacitance of two equal, series-connected capacitors?
A. Half the capacitance of either capacitor
B. Twice the capacitance of either capacitor
C. The value of either capacitor
D. The total capacitance cannot be determined without knowing the
exact capacitances
196. What is the voltage across a 500 turn secondary winding in a transformer
when the 2250 turn primary is connected to 117-VAC?
A. 2369 volts
B. 526.5 volts
C. 26 volts
D. 5.8 volts
197. What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier
having an output impedance of 200 ohms to a speaker having an impedance of
10 ohms?
A. 4.47 to 1
B. 14.14 to 1
C. 20 to 1
D. 400 to 1
198. What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier
having an output impedance of 600 ohms to a speaker having an impedance of
4 ohms?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1
199. What is the impedance of a speaker which requires a transformer with a
turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having an output impedance
of 2000 ohms?
A. 576 ohms
B. 83.3 ohms
C. 7.0 ohms
D. 3.5 ohms
200. What is the voltage that would produce the same amount of heat over time
in a resistive element as would an applied sine wave AC voltage?
A. A DC voltage equal to the peak-to-peak value of the AC voltage
B. A DC voltage equal to the RMS value of the AC voltage
C. A DC voltage equal to the average value of the AC voltage
D. A DC voltage equal to the peak value of the AC voltage
201. What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave which has an RMS voltage
of 117-volts?
A. 82.7 volts
B. 165.5 volts
C. 183.9 volts
D. 330.9 volts
202. A sine wave of 17-volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS?
A. 8.5 volts
B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts
D. 34 volts
SUBELEMENT 3BF -- Circuit Components (1 question)
203. What is the effect of an increase in ambient temperature on the
resistance of a carbon resistor?
A. The resistance will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade
that the temperature increases
B. The resistance stays the same
C. The resistance change depends on the resistor's temperature
coefficient rating
D. The resistance becomes time dependent
204. What type of capacitor is often used in power supply circuits to filter
the rectified AC?
A. Disc ceramic
B. Vacuum variable
C. Mica
D. Electrolytic
205. What type of capacitor is used in power supply circuits to filter
transient voltage spikes across the transformer secondary winding?
A. High-value
B. Trimmer
C. Vacuum variable
D. Suppressor
206. How do inductors become self-resonant?
A. Through distributed electromagnetism
B. Through eddy currents
C. Through distributed capacitance
D. Through parasitic hysteresis
207. What circuit component can change 120-VAC to 400-VAC?
A. A transformer
B. A capacitor
C. A diode
D. An SCR
208. What is the source of energy connected to in a transformer?
A. To the secondary winding
B. To the primary winding
C. To the core
D. To the plates
209. When there is no load attached to the secondary winding of a
transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?
A. Magnetizing current
B. Direct current
C. Excitation current
D. Stabilizing current
210. In what terms are the primary and secondary windings ratings of a power
transformer usually specified?
A. Joules per second
B. Peak inverse voltage
C. Coulombs per second
D. Volts or volt-amperes
211. What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power supply rectifier?
A. The highest transient voltage the diode will handle
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
C. The maximum voltage to be applied in the non-conducting direction
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency
212. Why must silicon rectifier diodes be thermally protected?
A. Because of their proximity to the power transformer
B. Because they will be destroyed if they become too hot
C. Because of their susceptibility to transient voltages
D. Because of their use in high-voltage applications
213. What are the two major ratings for silicon diode rectifiers of the type
used in power supply circuits which must not be exceeded?
A. Peak load impedance; peak voltage
B. Average power; average voltage
C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
D. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
SUBELEMENT 3BG -- Practical Circuits (1 question)
214. Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel with power
supply rectifier diodes?
A. To equalize voltage drops and guard against transient voltage
spikes
B. To ensure that the current through each diode is about the same
C. To smooth the output waveform
D. To decrease the output voltage
215. What function do capacitors serve when resistors and capacitors are
connected in parallel with high voltage power supply rectifier diodes?
A. They double or triple the output voltage
B. They block the alternating current
C. They protect those diodes that develop back resistance faster than
other diodes
D. They regulate the output voltage
216. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier
connected to a resistive load?
A. A steady DC voltage
B. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
C. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
D. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
217. How many degrees of each cycle does a half-wave rectifier utilize?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
218. How many degrees of each cycle does a full-wave rectifier utilize?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
219. Where is a power supply bleeder resistor connected?
A. Across the filter capacitor
B. Across the power-supply input
C. Between the transformer primary and secondary
D. Across the inductor in the output filter
220. What components comprise a power supply filter network?
A. Diodes
B. Transformers and transistors
C. Quartz crystals
D. Capacitors and inductors
221. What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a
full-wave power supply?
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
222. What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a
half-wave power supply?
A. One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of the power
supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
223. What should the impedance of a low-pass filter be as compared to the
impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
A. Substantially higher
B. About the same
C. Substantially lower
D. Twice the transmission line impedance
SUBELEMENT 3BH -- Signals and Emissions (2 questions)
224. What is the term for alteration of the amplitude of an RF wave for the
purpose of conveying information?
A. Frequency modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude rectification
D. Amplitude modulation
225. What is the term for alteration of the phase of an RF wave for the
purpose of conveying information?
A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Phase rectification
D. Amplitude modulation
226. What is the term for alteration of the frequency of an RF wave for the
purpose of conveying information?
A. Phase rectification
B. Frequency rectification
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Frequency modulation
227. In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the
RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating AF?
A. Frequency shift keying
B. Pulse modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
228. What determines the spectrum space occupied by each group of sidebands
generated by a correctly operating emission A3E transmitter?
A. The audio frequencies used to modulate the transmitter
B. The phase angle between the audio and radio frequencies being mixed
C. The radio frequencies used in the transmitter's VFO
D. The CW keying speed
229. How much is the carrier suppressed in an emission J3E transmission?
A. No more than 20 dB below peak output power
B. No more than 30 dB below peak output power
C. At least 40 dB below peak output power
D. At least 60 dB below peak output power
230. What is one advantage of carrier suppression in an emission A3E
transmission?
A. Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information
content
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
C. More power can be put into the sidebands
D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband
suppressed-carrier signal
231. Which one of the telephony emissions popular with amateurs occupies the
narrowest band of frequencies?
A. Single-sideband emission
B. Double-sideband emission
C. Phase-modulated emission
D. Frequency-modulated emission
232. Which emission type is produced by a telephony transmitter having a
balanced modulator followed by a 2.5-kHz bandpass filter?
A. PM
B. AM
C. SSB
D. FM
233. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF
power amplifier?
A. Multiplex modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Pulse modulation
234. What purpose does the carrier serve in an emission A3E transmission?
A. The carrier separates the sidebands so they don't cancel in the
receiver
B. The carrier contains the modulation information
C. The carrier maintains symmetry of the sidebands to prevent
distortion
D. The carrier serves as a reference signal for demodulation by an
envelope detector
235. What signal component appears in the center of the frequency band of an
emission A3E transmission?
A. The lower sidebands
B. The subcarrier
C. The carrier
D. The pilot tone
236. What sidebands are generated by an emission A3E transmitter with a
7250-kHz carrier modulated less than 100% by an 800-Hz pure sine wave?
A. 7250.8 kHz and 7251.6 kHz
B. 7250.0 kHz and 7250.8 kHz
C. 7249.2 kHz and 7250.8 kHz
D. 7248.4 kHz and 7249.2 kHz
237. How many times over the maximum deviation is the bandwidth of an
emission F3E transmission?
A. 1.5
B. At least 2.0
C. At least 4.0
D. The bandwidth cannot be determined without knowing the exact
carrier and modulating frequencies involved
238. What is the total bandwidth of an emission F3E transmission having 5-kHz
deviation and 3-kHz AF?
A. 3 kHz
B. 5 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 16 kHz
239. What happens to the shape of the RF envelope, as viewed on an
oscilloscope, of an emission A3E transmission?
A. The amplitude of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion
to the modulating signal
B. The amplitude of the envelope remains constant
C. The brightness of the envelope increases and decreases in
proportion to the modulating signal
D. The frequency of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion
to the amplitude of the modulating signal
240. What results when an emission J3E transmitter is overmodulated?
A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects
B. The signal occupies less bandwidth with poor high frequency
response
C. The signal has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio
D. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
241. What results when an emission A3E transmitter is overmodulated?
A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects
B. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
C. The signal occupies less bandwidth with poor high frequency
response
D. The transmitter's carrier frequency deviates
242. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated
oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz F3E transmitter?
A. 41.67 Hz
B. 416.7 Hz
C. 5 kHz
D. 12 kHz
243. What stage in a transmitter would translate a 5.3-MHz input signal to
14.3-MHz?
A. A mixer
B. A beat frequency oscillator
C. A frequency multiplier
D. A linear translator stage
244. How many frequency components are in the signal from an AF shift keyer
at any instant?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
245. How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal?
A. The frequency shift in Hertz must be at least four times the keying
speed in WPM
B. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying speed
C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts
D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts
SUBELEMENT 3BI -- Antennas and Feed Lines (4 questions)
246. Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radiocommunications on the 20 meter
band?
A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal
plane
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or
vertical antenna
C. It discriminates against interference from other stations off to
the side or behind
D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF
bands
247. What method is best suited to match an unbalanced coaxial feed line to
a Yagi antenna?
A. "T" match
B. Delta match
C. Hairpin match
D. Gamma match
248. How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased?
A. Use larger diameter elements
B. Use closer element spacing
C. Use traps on the elements
D. Use tapered-diameter elements
249. How much gain over a half-wave dipole can a two-element cubical quad
antenna provide?
A. Approximately 0.6 dB
B. Approximately 2 dB
C. Approximately 6 dB
D. Approximately 12 dB
250. How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for
21.4-MHz?
A. 1.17 feet
B. 11.7 feet
C. 47 feet
D. 469 feet
251. How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for
14.3-MHz?
A. 1.75 feet
B. 17.6 feet
C. 23.4 feet
D. 70.3 feet
252. How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna reflector element for
29.6-MHz?
A. 8.23 feet
B. 8.7 feet
C. 9.7 feet
D. 34.8 feet
253. How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element
for 28.7-MHz?
A. 8.75 feet
B. 11.32 feet
C. 11.7 feet
D. 35 feet
254. How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element
for 24.9-MHz?
A. 10.09 feet
B. 13.05 feet
C. 13.45 feet
D. 40.36 feet
255. How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna reflector
element for 14.1-MHz?
A. 18.26 feet
B. 23.76 feet
C. 24.35 feet
D. 73.05 feet
256. How long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0-MHz?
A. Approximately 17 feet
B. Approximately 33 feet
C. Approximately 35 feet
D. Approximately 66 feet
257. How long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1-MHz?
A. Approximately 42 feet
B. Approximately 21 feet
C. Approximately 17 feet
D. Approximately 10.5 feet
258. How long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1-MHz?
A. Approximately 8.75 feet
B. Approximately 16.6 feet
C. Approximately 17.5 feet
D. Approximately 35 feet
259. What is the feed-point impedance for a half-wavelength dipole HF antenna
suspended horizontally one-quarter wavelength or more above the ground?
A. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive
B. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive and inductive
C. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive and capacitive
D. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive
260. What is the feed-point impedance of a quarter-wavelength vertical HF
antenna with a horizontal ground plane?
A. Approximately 18 ohms
B. Approximately 36 ohms
C. Approximately 52 ohms
D. Approximately 72 ohms
261. What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground-plane
antenna?
A. Sloping the radials downward lowers the radiation angle
B. Sloping the radials downward brings the feed-point impedance close
to 300 ohms
C. Sloping the radials downward allows rainwater to run off the
antenna
D. Sloping the radials downward brings the feed-point impedance closer
to 50 ohms
262. What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when
the radials slope downward from the base of the antenna?
A. The feed-point impedance decreases
B. The feed-point impedance increases
C. The feed-point impedance stays the same
D. The feed-point impedance becomes purely capacitive
263. Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation
characteristics of a cubical quad HF antenna?
A. The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less
directivity in the vertical plane
B. The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more
directivity in the vertical plane
C. The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical
planes
D. The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical
planes
264. What is the radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole HF
antenna?
A. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates well in a
figure-eight pattern at right angles to the antenna wire
B. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates well in a
figure-eight pattern off both ends of the antenna wire
C. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates equally well
in all directions
D. If it is installed parallel to the earth, the pattern will have two
lobes on one side of the antenna wire, and one larger lobe on the other side
265. How does proximity to the ground affect the radiation pattern of a
horizontal dipole HF antenna?
A. If the antenna is too far from the ground, the pattern becomes
unpredictable
B. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength from the ground,
reflected radio waves from the ground distort the radiation pattern of the
antenna
C. A dipole antenna's radiation pattern is unaffected by its distance
to the ground
D. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength from the ground,
radiation off the ends of the wire is reduced
266. What does the term antenna front-to-back ratio mean?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the
reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the
power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the
power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
267. What effect upon the radiation pattern of an HF dipole antenna will a
slightly smaller parasitic parallel element located a few feet away in the
same horizontal plane have?
A. The radiation pattern will not change appreciably
B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the
two elements
C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the
ground
D. If the spacing is greater than 0.1 wavelength, a major lobe will
develop in the horizontal plane to the side of the driven element toward the
parasitic element
268. What is the meaning of the term main lobe as used in reference to a
directional antenna?
A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from a radiating
antenna
D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
269. Upon what does the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor
antenna feed line depend?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius
of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length
of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
270. What is the characteristic impedance of various coaxial cables commonly
used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
A. Around 25 and 30 ohms
B. Around 50 and 75 ohms
C. Around 80 and 100 ohms
D. Around 500 and 750 ohms
271. What effect, if any, does the length of a coaxial cable have upon its
characteristic impedance?
A. The length has no effect on the characteristic impedance
B. The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily above 144
MHz
C. The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily below 144
MHz
D. The length affects the characteristic impedance at any frequency
272. What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead?
A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms
273. What is the cause of power being reflected back down an antenna feed
line?
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed-point
impedance
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
274. What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is
connected to a resonant antenna having a 200 ohm feed-point impedance?
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
275. What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is
connected to a resonant antenna having a 10 ohm feed-point impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 50:1
C. 1:5
D. 5:1
276. What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is
connected to a resonant antenna having a 50 ohm feed-point impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 50:50
C. 1:1
D. 0:0
277. How does the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable affect the
amount of attenuation to the RF signal passing through it?
A. The attenuation is affected more by the characteristic impedance
at frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below 144 MHz
B. The attenuation is affected less by the characteristic impedance
at frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below 144 MHz
C. The attenuation related to the characteristic impedance is about
the same at all amateur frequencies below 1.5 GHz
D. The difference in attenuation depends on the emission type in use
278. How does the amount of attenuation to a 2 meter signal passing through
a coaxial cable differ from that to a 160 meter signal?
A. The attenuation is greater at 2 meters
B. The attenuation is less at 2 meters
C. The attenuation is the same at both frequencies
D. The difference in attenuation depends on the emission type in use
279. What is the effect on its attenuation when flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead
is wet?
A. Attenuation decreases slightly
B. Attenuation remains the same
C. Attenuation decreases sharply
D. Attenuation increases
280. Why might silicone grease or automotive car wax be applied to
flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead?
A. To reduce "skin effect" losses on the conductors
B. To reduce the buildup of dirt and moisture on the feed line
C. To increase the velocity factor of the feed line
D. To help dissipate heat during high-SWR operation
281. In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
A. Bels/1000 ft
B. dB/1000 ft
C. Bels/100 ft
D. dB/100 ft
282. As the operating frequency increases, what happens to the dielectric
losses in a feed line?
A. The losses decrease
B. The losses decrease to zero
C. The losses remain the same
D. The losses increase
283. As the operating frequency decreases, what happens to the dielectric
losses in a feed line?
A. The losses decrease
B. The losses increase
C. The losses remain the same
D. The losses become infinite
284. What condition must be satisfied to prevent standing waves of voltage
and current on an antenna feed line?
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter
wavelengths long
C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths
long
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the
characteristic impedance of the feed line
285. How is an inductively-coupled matching network used in an antenna system
consisting of a center-fed resonant dipole and coaxial feed line?
A. An inductively coupled matching network is not normally used in a
resonant antenna system
B. An inductively coupled matching network is used to increase the SWR
to an acceptable level
C. An inductively coupled matching network can be used to match the
unbalanced condition at the transmitter output to the balanced condition
required by the coaxial line
D. An inductively coupled matching network can be used at the antenna
feed point to tune out the radiation resistance
286. What is an antenna-transmission line mismatch?
A. A condition where the feed-point impedance of the antenna does not
equal the output impedance of the transmitter
B. A condition where the output impedance of the transmitter does not
equal the characteristic impedance of the feed line
C. A condition where a half-wavelength antenna is being fed with a
transmission line of some length other than one-quarter wavelength at the
operating frequency
D. A condition where the characteristic impedance of the feed line
does not equal the feed-point impedance of the antenna
1. A 3A-3.2
2. A 3A-3.3
3. C 3A-3.4
4. C 3A-3.5
5. A 3A-3.7
6. C 3A-4.1
7. C 3A-4.3
8. B 3A-6.1
9. C 3A-6.2
10. A 3A-6.6
11. D 3A-8.6
12. C 3A-9.1
13. A 3A-9.2
14. D 3A-9.3
15. A 3A-9.4
16. B 3A-9.5
17. C 3A-9.6
18. A 3A-9.7
19. A 3A-9.8
20. C 3A-9.9
21. B 3A-9.10
22. C 3A-9.11
23. A 3A-9.12
24. B 3A-9.13
25. C 3A-9.14
26. C 3A-9.15
27. C 3A-9.16
28. A 3A-10.1
29. C 3A-10.2
30. D 3A-10.3
31. C 3A-10.4
32. B 3A-10.5
33. C 3A-10.6
34. C 3A-10.7
35. C 3A-10.8
36. C 3A-13.1
37. D 3A-13.2
38. B 3A-14.3
39. A 3A-14.6
40. D 3A-15.1
41. C 3A-15.3
42. B 3A-15.4
43. C 3A-16.1
44. B 3A-16.2
45. A 3A-16.3
46. A 3A-16.4
47. C 3B-1.4
48. B 3B-1.5
49. B 3B-2.1
50. A 3B-2.2
51. C 3B-2.3
52. A 3B-2.4
53. B 3B-2.6
54. C 3B-2.10
55. D 3B-2.11
56. B 3B-2.12
57. A 3B-3.8
58. A 3B-3.12
59. A 3B-4.1
60. B 3B-4.2
61. D 3B-5.1
62. C 3B-5.2
63. B 3B-6.1
64. B 3B-6.2
65. B 3B-6.3
66. B 3B-7.1
67. A 3B-7.2
68. A 3B-7.3
69. C 3B-7.4
70. C 3B-7.5
71. C 3B-8.1
72. B 3B-8.2
73. B 3B-8.3
74. C 3B-8.4
75. C 3B-8.5
76. C 3B-8.6
77. C 3B-8.7
78. C 3B-8.8
79. C 3B-8.9
80. A 3B-10.1
81. B 3B-10.2
82. C 3C-1.6
83. B 3C-1.7
84. B 3C-1.9
85. A 3C-1.10
86. D 3C-1.13
87. C 3C-2.3
88. C 3C-2.4
89. B 3C-3.3
90. C 3C-3.4
91. B 3C-5.1
92. A 3C-5.2
93. B 3C-5.3
94. C 3C-5.4
95. A 3C-5.5
96. B 3C-6.2
97. D 3C-6.4
98. B 3C-6.5
99. A 3C-6.6
100. B 3C-7.1
101. D 3C-7.2
102. A 3C-7.3
103. D 3C-7.4
104. D 3C-7.5
105. A 3C-7.6
106. D 3C-7.7
107. C 3C-7.8
108. D 3C-10.1
109. A 3C-10.2
110. B 3C-10.3
111. D 3C-10.4
112. A 3D-1.5
113. A 3D-1.6
114. D 3D-1.7
115. C 3D-1.8
116. D 3D-1.9
117. B 3D-2.4
118. C 3D-3.1
119. C 3D-3.2
120. C 3D-3.3
121. D 3D-3.4
122. D 3D-3.5
123. A 3D-4.1
124. D 3D-4.2
125. C 3D-4.3
126. B 3D-4.4
127. B 3D-4.5
128. B 3D-5.1
129. A 3D-5.5
130. B 3D-5.6
131. B 3D-5.7
132. D 3D-6.1
133. A 3D-6.2
134. D 3D-6.3
135. B 3D-6.4
136. C 3D-9.1
137. A 3D-9.2
138. D 3D-9.3
139. B 3D-10.1
140. B 3D-10.2
141. C 3D-10.3
142. C 3D-10.4
143. A 3D-10.5
144. D 3D-12.2
145. B 3D-12.3
146. C 3D-12.4
147. D 3D-12.5
148. A 3D-13.1
149. C 3D-13.2
150. D 3D-13.3
151. B 3D-14.6
152. C 3D-14.7
153. B 3D-15.1
154. A 3D-15.2
155. B 3D-15.3
156. D 3D-15.4
157. A 3D-17.2
158. C 3D-17.3
159. A 3D-17.4
160. B 3D-17.5
161. C 3D-17.6
162. C 3E-1.1
163. C 3E-1.2
164. B 3E-3.1
165. D 3E-3.2
166. D 3E-3.3
167. D 3E-3.4
168. A 3E-3.5
169. A 3E-6.1
170. D 3E-6.2
171. D 3E-6.3
172. A 3E-6.4
173. B 3E-7.2
174. A 3E-7.4
175. A 3E-10.1
176. A 3E-10.2
177. D 3E-10.3
178. B 3E-10.4
179. D 3E-10.5
180. B 3E-10.6
181. C 3E-10.7
182. D 3E-10.8
183. C 3E-10.9
184. D 3E-12.1
185. B 3E-12.3
186. B 3E-13.1
187. D 3E-13.2
188. A 3E-13.3
189. C 3E-14.1
190. D 3E-14.2
191. A 3E-14.3
192. B 3E-14.4
193. B 3E-14.5
194. B 3E-14.6
195. A 3E-14.7
196. C 3E-15.1
197. A 3E-15.2
198. A 3E-15.3
199. D 3E-15.4
200. B 3E-16.1
201. D 3E-16.2
202. B 3E-16.3
203. C 3F-1.5
204. D 3F-2.6
205. D 3F-2.7
206. C 3F-3.5
207. A 3F-4.1
208. B 3F-4.2
209. A 3F-4.3
210. D 3F-4.4
211. C 3F-5.1
212. B 3F-5.2
213. D 3F-5.4
214. A 3G-1.1
215. C 3G-1.2
216. D 3G-1.3
217. B 3G-1.4
218. D 3G-1.5
219. A 3G-1.6
220. D 3G-1.7
221. D 3G-1.8
222. D 3G-1.9
223. B 3G-2.8
224. D 3H-2.1
225. B 3H-2.3
226. D 3H-2.4
227. D 3H-3.1
228. A 3H-3.2
229. C 3H-4.1
230. C 3H-4.2
231. A 3H-5.1
232. C 3H-5.2
233. B 3H-7.2
234. D 3H-8.1
235. C 3H-8.2
236. C 3H-9.1
237. B 3H-10.1
238. D 3H-10.2
239. A 3H-11.1
240. D 3H-13.1
241. B 3H-13.2
242. B 3H-15.1
243. A 3H-15.2
244. A 3H-16.4
245. C 3H-16.5
246. C 3I-1.3
247. D 3I-1.7
248. A 3I-1.9
249. C 3I-2.1
250. B 3I-3.1
251. B 3I-3.2
252. B 3I-3.3
253. C 3I-3.4
254. C 3I-3.5
255. C 3I-3.6
256. B 3I-3.7
257. B 3I-3.8
258. C 3I-3.9
259. D 3I-5.1
260. B 3I-5.2
261. D 3I-5.3
262. B 3I-5.4
263. C 3I-6.1
264. A 3I-6.2
265. B 3I-6.3
266. C 3I-6.4
267. D 3I-6.5
268. C 3I-6.6
269. A 3I-7.1
270. B 3I-7.2
271. A 3I-7.3
272. D 3I-7.4
273. C 3I-8.4
274. A 3I-9.3
275. D 3I-9.4
276. C 3I-9.5
277. C 3I-11.1
278. A 3I-11.2
279. D 3I-11.4
280. B 3I-11.7
281. D 3I-11.8
282. D 3I-11.10
283. A 3I-11.12
284. D 3I-12.1
285. A 3I-12.2
286. D 3I-12.5
QUESTION POOL SUPPLEMENT
ELEMENT 3B
3BA-4.01 {This is on a frequency restricted against phone,
therefore there is no alternative to slant mark}
3BA-4.03 {Steve - Tech can't operate on 14.325, AND he MUST hold
a "before" class of license (to give him a call sign) or he can't
operate at all. In other words if he held a CSCE for General
class, and the General class would be his [B+]original
license[B-] - you see my point? }
{Bart - a general class should use "AG" not "KT"}
3BA-6.01 {97.115(a)(2) ends with ".......This Prohibition does
not apply to a message for any third party who is [B+]eligible to
be a control operator[B-] of the station." (emphasis added) It
appears to me that reference to "unlicensed party" would
improperly exclude lower class when operations were on
frequencies restricted to higher class licenses. If that phone
patch is coming through on 14.313, certainly the novice class is
not qualified to be a control operator of the station within the
meaning I get from above-referenced paragraph. Answer "fixed"
via an addition to "universal changes"}
3BA-6.2
(A) Third-party communciations involving material
compensation, either tangile or intangible, direct or
indirect, to at third party, a station licensee, a
control operator, or other person
(B) Third-party communications facilitating the business
affairs of any party
(C). Third-party communications limited to messages of a
technical nature or remarks of a personal character
3BA-6.06 {control operator of the [B+]TRANSMITTING[B-] station is
not in part 97, fellows. It appears to me that he could just as
easily qualify if he were qualified to be the control operator of
the receiving station as well.}
3BA-10-01 through 3BA-13.02 {The word "emission" will be added to
CW, RTTY, IMAGE, and PHONE}
3BA-13.01 {The word "baud" will be pluralized to become "bauds"
per wording used in Part 97}
3BA-14.06
Which of the following is [B+]NOT[B-] a condition that allows an
amateur station to engage in newsgathering for broadcast
purposes?
(A). The information is more quickly transmitted by Amateur
Radio
3BA-16.01 {97.3(a)(37) defines "TELECOMMAND STATION. An amateur
station that [B+]transmits communications to[B+] initiate, modify
or terminate functions of [B+]a space station.[B-]" 97.211(b)
says " A telecommand station may transmit special codes intended
to obscure the meaning of telecommand messages [B+]to the station
in space operation.[B-]" (emphasis added) I therefore cannot
accept the acceptability of two-way telecommand operations.}
3BA-16.02
In an amateur communication, what types of abbreviations or
procedural signals are not considered codes or ciphers?
3BA-16.03 {Question and answer as I originally drafted is
virtually direct quotation from Part 97, however we maybe should
stay with Codes and Ciphers, so I'll use ARRL version.}
When, if ever, are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way domestic
Amateur Radio communications?
(A).Codes or ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
(B) Codes or ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored
contests
(C) Codes or ciphers are permitted during nationally declared
emergencies
(D) Codes or ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz
3BA-16.04 {ditto as to reasoning}
When, if ever, are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way
international Amateur Radio communications?
(A). Codes or ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances
(B) Codes or ciphers are permitted during ITU-sponsored DX
contests
(C) Codes or ciphers are permitted during internationally
declared emergencies
(D) Codes or ciphers are permitted only on frequencies
above 2.3 GHz
3BA-6.01
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what is the minimum
frequency sepatation from a QSO in progress that should be
allowed in order to minimize interference?
3BB-1.04
What is meant by the term "flat-topping" in a single-sideband
phone emission?
3BB-2.01, 2.02 and 2.06 {to me, "emissions" refer to the concept
of the signal leaving the transmitter's antenna: "transmissions"
refers to the concept of transportation of intelligence to a
second party. Am I wrong? If not, .01 should be transmission,
.02 should be transmission, and .06 should be emission. If I am
wrong, someone point me in the direction of the light.}
3BD-3.04
What audio frequencies are used in a [B+]two-tone test[B-] of the
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter?
3BD-5.07
What is the optput PEP of an unmodulated carrier when an average-
reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output terminals
indicates 1060 watts?
3BD-15.02
What is the best instrument for checking the transmitted signal
quality from a CW or single-sideband phone transmitter?
3BH-3.02
What determines the spectrum space occupied by each group of
sidebands generated by a correctly operating double-sideband
phone transmitter?
3H-4.02
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband
phone transmission?
3BH-8.01 through 3BH-9.01 and 3BH-11.01 and 3BH-13.02 {Change AM
phone to double-sideband phone, and let's make the af's and rf's
all upper case, even if it is presented as lower case in Part 97}
3BH-10.02
What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having a
5-kHz deviation and a 3-kHz modulating frequency?
3BH-13.01
What results when a single-sideband phone transmitter is
overmodulated? {I promise to quit changing modes!}
3BH-15.01 {While phase modulated is FM, so is frequency
modulated, therefore FM is the more comprehensive term between
the two}
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